CISCO CCNA Certifications

CISCO CCNA netacad 4 semester Questions

2008-08-28T12:08:00.000-07:00

CISCO CCNA netacad 4 semester Questions

CCNA1,CCNA2,CCNA3,CCNA4 FINAL

Semester 1 :
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Semester 2 :
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Semester 3 :
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Semester 4 :
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VOUCHER Exam :
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CISCO Certifications:
CCNA: 640-802
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640 802 CCNA Recommend Readings

2008-08-26T18:30:00.000-07:00

Contain in this file are the best CCNA 640-802 Recommended reading material
CCENT/CCNA ICND1 Official Exam Certification Guide
CCENT/CCNA ICND2 Official Exam Certification Guide
Practical Cisco Network
Cisco CCNA Study Guide 640-802
CCNA Portable Command Guide
640-802 CCNA ICND Official Exam Certification Guide, 2nd Edition
CCNA Ebooks
CCNA IP ROUTING FUNDAMENTALS
TESTKING CCNA 640-802 Version 9
TESTKING CCNA 640-802 Version 12
CCNA IP ROUTING FUNDAMENTALS

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CCNA 2 v4.0 download

2008-08-19T20:29:00.000-07:00

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CCNA3 v4.0 download

2008-08-19T20:28:00.000-07:00

DOWNLOAD CCNA3 version 4.0

CCNA4 v4.0 download(updated 21/7/2008)

2008-08-19T20:27:00.000-07:00

CCNA4 version 4.o download

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CCNA4 Final 100% (update 21/7/2008)

CCNA 3:Module 7

2008-08-11T05:36:00.000-07:00

Options With Highlight Colours are Correct Answer

1. Which two conditions have favored adoption of 802.11g over 802.11a? (Choose two.)
802.11a suffers from a shorter range than 802.11g.
The 2.4 GHz frequency band is not as crowded as the 5 GHz band.
802.11a is more susceptible to RF interference from common commercial items.
802.11a uses a more expensive modulation technique than 802.11g.
802.11g is backward compatible with 802.11b, but 802.11a is not.

2. Which two statements concerning network security are accurate? (Choose two.)
802.11i uses 3DES for encryption.
Open authentication uses no client or AP verification.
The 802.11i protocol is functionally identical to WPA.
802.11i incorporates a RADIUS server for enterprise authentication.
A wireless client first associates with an AP and then authenticates for network access.

3. Which installation method will allow connectivity for a new wireless network?
set up WEP on the access point only
set up open access on both the access point and each device connected to it
set up full encryption on the access point while leaving each device connected to the network open
set up full encryption on each device of the WLAN while leaving the access point settings open

4. Refer to the exhibit. When configuring the wireless access point, which setting does the network administrator use to configure the unique identifier that client devices use to distinguish this wireless network from others?
Network Mode
Network Name (SSID)
Radio Band
Wide Channel
Standard Channel

5. Which two statements are true regarding wireless security? (Choose two.)
MAC address filtering prevents the contents of wireless frames from being viewable.
Providing a wireless client with the network key allows an available network to be visible.
Disabling an access point from broadcasting the SSID prevents the access point from being discovered.
Default SSIDs on specific manufacturer APs are generally known and may permit hostile wireless connections.
Manually adding a network and setting the known SSID on a wireless client makes the network visible even if the SSID is not being broadcast.

6. Wireless users on a network complain about poor performance within a small area of a room. Moving away from this area in any direction improves performance dramatically. What is the first step in designing a solution to this problem?
This might be RF channel overlap, so the technician should verify the channels in use on each wireless access point and change to non-overlapping channels.
The RF power settings might be set too low on the wireless access points servicing the room. Increase the RF output power on all wireless access points.
Install a new wireless access point in this center area to provide coverage.
Verify that the wireless access points have sufficient in-line power and connectivity to the wired network.

7. Which three devices do many wireless routers incorporate? (Choose three.)
gateway for connecting to other network infrastructures
built-in Ethernet switch
network management station
VTP server
wireless access point
VPN concentrator

8. Which access method does a wireless access point use to allow for multiple user connectivity and distributed access?
CSMA/CD
token passing
CSMA/CA
polling

9. Why is security so important in wireless networks?
Wireless networks are typically slower than wired networks.
Televisions and other devices can interfere with wireless signals.
Wireless networks broadcast data over a medium that allows easy access.
Environmental factors such as thunderstorms can affect wireless networks.

10. Which wireless technology standard provides the most compatibility with older wireless standards, but has greater performance?
802.11a
802.11b
802.11g
802.11n

11. Which two statements characterize wireless network security? (Choose two.)
A rogue access point represents a security risk for the local network.
Wireless networks offer the same security features as wired networks.
Using encryption prevents unauthorized clients from associating with an access point.
An attacker needs physical access to at least one network device to launch an attack.
With SSID broadcast disabled, an attacker must sniff the SSID before being able to connect.

12. Which network design process identifies where to place access points?
site survey
risk assessment
scalability design
network protocol analysis

13. What wireless security feature allows a network administrator to configure an access point with wireless NIC unique identifiers so that only these NICs can connect to the wireless network?
authentication
SSID broadcasting
MAC address filtering
EAP (Extensible Authentication Protocol)
Radius (Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service)

14. What will a wireless client transmit to discover the available WLAN networks?
beacon
password
probe request
association request

15. In a WLAN network, why should wireless access points be implemented with each access point using a different channel?
to keep users segregated on separate subnets
to control the amount of bandwidth that is utilized
to keep signals from interfering with each other
to keep traffic secure

16. What purpose does authentication serve in a WLAN?
converts clear text data before transmission
indicates which channel the data should flow on
determines that the correct host is utilizing the network
allows the host to choose which channel to use

17. What occurs when a rogue access point is added to a WLAN?
Authorized access points can transmit excess traffic to rogue access points to help alleviate congestion.
Unauthorized users can gain access to internal servers, thus causing a security hole.
All traffic that uses the same channel as the rogue access point will be encrypted.
All traffic that uses the same channel as the rogue access point will be required to authenticate.

18. What procedure can prevent man-in-the-middle attacks?
Force all devices on a WLAN to authenticate and monitor for any unknown devices.
Enable access points to send an SSID to each device wanting to use the network.
Configure MAC filtering on all authorized access points.
Disable SSID broadcasts.

19. Which function is provided by a wireless access point?
dynamically assigns an IP address to the host
provides local DHCP services
converts data from 802.11 to 802.3 frame encapsulation
provides a gateway for connecting to other networks

20. Which major problem does CSMA/CA overcome in wireless networks?
bandwidth saturation
privacy concerns
media contention
device interoperability

21. What does a wireless access point use to allow WLAN clients to learn which networks are available in a given area?
association response
beacon
key
probe request

CCNA 3:Module 6

2008-08-11T05:35:00.000-07:00

Options With Highlight Colours are Correct Answer

1. Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements describe the network design shown in the exhibit? (Choose three.)
This design will not scale easily.
The router merges the VLANs into a single broadcast domain.
This design uses more switch and router ports than are necessary.
This design exceeds the maximum number of VLANs that can be attached to a switch.
This design requires the use of the ISL or 802.1q protocol on the links between the switch and the router.
If the physical interfaces between the switch and router are operational, the devices on the different VLANs can communicate through the router.

2. A router has two FastEthernet interfaces and needs to connect to four VLANs in the local network. How can this be accomplished using the fewest number of physical interfaces without unnecessarily decreasing network performance?
Implement a router-on-a-stick configuration.
Add a second router to handle the inter-VLAN traffic.
Use a hub to connect the four VLANS with a FastEthernet interface on the router.
Interconnect the VLANs via the two additional FastEthernet interfaces.

3. Refer to the exhibit. All devices are configured as shown in the exhibit. PC2 can successfully ping the F0/0 interface on R1. PC2 cannot ping PC1. What might be the reason for this failure?
R1 interface F0/1 has not been configured for subinterface operation.
S1 interface F0/6 needs to be configured for operation in VLAN10.
S1 interface F0/8 is in the wrong VLAN.
S1 port F0/6 is not in VLAN10.

4. Refer to the exhibit. The commands for a router to connect to a trunked uplink are shown in the exhibit. A packet is received from IP address 192.168.1.54. The packet destination address is 192.168.1.120. What will the router do with this packet?
The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.1 tagged for VLAN 10.
The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.2 tagged for VLAN 60.
The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.3 tagged for VLAN 120.
The router will not process the packet since the source and destination are on the same subnet.
The router will drop the packet since no network that includes the source address is attached to the router.

5. What distinguishes traditional routing from router-on-a-stick?
Traditional routing is only able to use a single switch interface. Router-on-a-stick can use multiple switch interfaces.
Traditional routing requires a routing protocol. Router-on-a-stick only needs to route directly connected networks.
Traditional routing uses one port per logical network. Router-on-a-stick uses subinterfaces to connect multiple logical networks to a single router port.
Traditional routing uses multiple paths to the router and therefore requires STP. Router-on-a-stick does not provide multiple connections and therefore eliminates the need for STP.

6. Which statement is true about ARP when inter-VLAN routing is being used on the network?
When router-on-a-stick inter-VLAN routing is in use, each subinterface has a separate MAC address to send in response to ARP requests.
When VLANs are in use, the switch responds to ARP requests with the MAC address of the port to which the PC is connected.
When router-on-a-stick inter-VLAN routing is in use, the router returns the MAC address of the physical interface in response to ARP requests.
When traditional inter-VLAN routing is in use, devices on all VLANs use the same physical router interface as their source of proxy ARP responses.

7. What two statements are true regarding the use of subinterfaces for inter-VLAN routing? (Choose two.)
subinterfaces have no contention for bandwidth
more switch ports required than in traditional inter-VLAN routing
fewer router ports required than in traditional inter-VLAN routing
simpler Layer 3 troubleshooting than with traditional inter-VLAN routing
less complex physical connection than in traditional inter-VLAN routing

8. Which three elements must be used when configuring a router interface for VLAN trunking? (Choose three.)
one subinterface per VLAN
one physical interface for each subinterface
one IP network or subnetwork for each subinterface
one trunked link per VLAN
a management domain for each subinterface
a compatible trunking protocol encapsulation for each subinterface

9. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about the operation of the subinterfaces? (Choose two.)
Incoming traffic that has a VLAN ID of 2 is processed by subinterface fa0/0.2.
Incoming traffic with VLAN ID 0 is processed by interface fa0/0.
Subinterfaces use unique MAC addresses by adding the 802.1Q VLAN ID to the hardware address.
Traffic inbound on this router is processed by different subinterfaces, depending on the VLAN from which the traffic originated.
Reliability of both subinterfaces is poor because ARP is timing out.
Both subinterfaces remain up with line protocol up, even if fa0/0 line protocol is down.

10. Refer to the exhibit. Port Fa0/0 on router R1 is connected to port Fa0/1 on switch S1. After the commands shown are entered on both devices, the network administrator determines that the devices on VLAN 2 are unable to ping the devices on VLAN 1. What is the likely problem?
R1 is configured for router-on-a-stick, but S1 is not configured for trunking.
R1 does not have the VLANs entered in the VLAN database.
Spanning Tree Protocol is blocking port Fa0/0 on R1.
The subinterfaces on R1 have not been brought up with the no shutdown command yet.

11. Refer to the exhibit. PC1 has attempted to ping PC2 but has been unsuccessful. What could account for this failure?
PC1 and R1 interface F0/0.1 are on different subnets.
The encapsulation is missing on the R1 interface F0/0.
An IP address has not been assigned to the R1 physical interface.
The encapsulation command on the R1 F0/0.3 interface is incorrect.

12. Refer to the exhibit. R1 is routing between networks 192.168.10.0/28 and 192.168.30.0/28. PC1 can ping R1 interface F0/1, but cannot ping PC3. What is causing this failure?
PC1 and PC3 are not in the same VLAN.
The PC3 network address configuration is incorrect.
The S1 interface F0/11 should be assigned to VLAN30.
The F0/0 and F0/1 interfaces on R1 must be configured as trunks.

13. Devices on the network are connected to a 24-port Layer 2 switch that is configured with VLANs. Switch ports 0/2 to 0/4 are assigned to VLAN 10. Ports 0/5 to 0/8 are assigned to VLAN 20, and ports 0/9 to 0/12 are assigned to VLAN 30. All other ports are assigned to the default VLAN. Which solution allows all VLANs to communicate between each other while minimizing the number of ports necessary to connect the VLANs?
Configure ports 0/13 to 0/16 with the appropriate IP addresses to perform routing between VLANs.
Add a router to the topology and configure one FastEthernet interface on the router with multiple subinterfaces for VLANs 1, 10, 20, and 30.
Obtain a router with multiple LAN interfaces and configure each interface for a separate subnet, thereby allowing communication between VLANs.
Obtain a Layer 3 switch and configure a trunk link between the switch and router, and configure the router physical interface with an IP address on the native VLAN.

14. Which two statements are true about the interface fa0/0.10 command? (Choose two.)
The command applies VLAN 10 to router interface fa0/0.
The command is used in the configuration of router-on-a-stick inter-VLAN routing.
The command configures a subinterface.
The command configures interface fa0/0 as a trunk link.
Because the IP address is applied to the physical interface, the command does not include an IP address.

15. Refer to the exhibit. What two conclusions can be drawn from the output that is shown? (Choose two.)
The no shutdown command has not been issued on the FastEthernet 0/0 interface.
Both of the directly connected routes that are shown will share the same physical interface of the router.
A routing protocol must be configured on the network in order for the inter-VLAN routing to be successful.
Inter-VLAN routing between hosts on the 172.17.10.0/24 and 172.17.30.0/24 networks is successful on this network.
Hosts in this network must be configured with the IP address that is assigned to the router physical interface as their default gateway.

16. What are the steps which must be completed in order to enable inter-VLAN routing using router-on-a-stick?
Configure the physical interfaces on the router and enable a routing protocol.
Create the VLANs on the router and define the port membership assignments on the switch.
Create the VLANs on the switch to include port membership assignment and enable a routing protocol on the router.
Create the VLANs on the switch to include port membership assignment and configure subinterfaces on the router matching the VLANs.

17. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator correctly configures RTA to perform inter-VLAN routing. The administrator connects RTA to port 0/4 on SW2, but inter-VLAN routing does not work. What could be the possible cause of the problem with the SW2 configuration?
Port 0/4 is not active.
Port 0/4 is not a member of VLAN1.
Port 0/4 is configured in access mode.
Port 0/4 is using the wrong trunking protocol.

18. What is important to consider while configuring the subinterfaces of a router when implementing inter-VLAN routing?
The physical interface must have an IP address configured.
The subinterface numbers must match the VLAN ID number.
The no shutdown command must be given on each subinterface.
The IP address of each subinterface must be the default gateway address for each VLAN subnet.

19. in which situation could individual router physical interfaces be used for InterVLAN routing, instead of a router-on-a-stick configuration?
a network with more than 100 subnetworks
a network with a limited number of VLANs
a network with experienced support personnel
a network using a router with one LAN interface

20. Refer to the exhibit. Switch1 is correctly configured for the VLANs that are displayed in the graphic. The configuration that is shown was applied to RTA to allow for interVLAN connectivity between hosts attached to Switch1. After testing the network, the administrator logged the following report:
Hosts within each VLAN can communicate with each other.
Hosts in VLAN5 and VLAN33 are able to communicate with each other.
Hosts connected to Fa0/1 through Fa0/5 do not have connectivity to host in other VLANs.
Why are hosts connected to Fa0/1 through Fa0/5 unable to communicate with hosts in different VLANs?
The router interface is shut down.
The VLAN IDs do not match the subinterface numbers.
All of the subinterface addresses on the router are in the same subnet.
The router was not configured to forward traffic for VLAN2.
The physical interface, FastEthernet0/0, was not configured with an IP address.

CCNA 3:Module 5

2008-08-11T05:34:00.000-07:00

Options With Highlight Colours are Correct Answer

1. Which two statements are true about the default operation of STP in a Layer 2 switched environment that has redundant connections between switches? (Choose two.)
The root switch is the switch with the highest speed ports.
Decisions on which port to block when two ports have equal cost depend on the port priority and identity.
All trunking ports are designated and not blocked.
Root switches have all ports set as root ports.
Non-root switches each have only one root port.

2. Which two statements describe the BIDs used in a spanning tree topology? (Choose two.)
They are sent out by the root bridge only after the inferior BPDUs are sent.
They consist of a bridge priority and MAC address.
Only the root bridge will send out a BID.
They are used by the switches in a spanning tree topology to elect the root bridge.
The switch with the fastest processor will have the lowest BID.

3. In which two ways is the information that is contained in BPDUs used by switches? (Choose two.)
to negotiate a trunk between switches
to set the duplex mode of a redundant link
to identify the shortest path to the root bridge
to prevent loops by sharing bridging tables between connected switches
to determine which ports will forward frames as part of the spanning tree

4. Which two actions does an RSTP edge port take if it receives a BPDU? (Choose two.)
immediately loses its edge status
inhibits the generation of a TCN
goes immediately to a learning state
disables itself
becomes a normal spanning-tree port

5. Refer to the exhibit. All switches in the network have empty MAC tables. STP has been disabled on the switches in the network. How will a broadcast frame that is sent by host PC1 be handled on the network?
Switch SW1 will block the broadcast and drop the frame.
Switch SW1 will forward the broadcast out all switch ports, except the originating port. This will generate an endless loop in the network.
Switch SW1 will forward the broadcast out all switch ports, except the originating port. All hosts in the network will replay with a unicast frame sent to host PC1.
Switch SW1 will forward the traffic out all switch ports except the originating port as a unicast frame. All hosts in the network will replay with a unicast frame sent to switch SW1.

6. Which two items are true regarding the spanning-tree portfast command? (Choose two.)
PortFast is Cisco proprietary.
PortFast can negatively effect DHCP services.
PortFast is used to more quickly prevent and eliminate bridging loops.
Enabling PortFast on trunks that connect to other switches improves convergence.
If an access port is configured with PortFast, it immediately transitions from a blocking to a forwarding state.

7. Refer to the exhibit. Server sends an ARP request for the MAC address of its default gateway. If STP is not enabled, what will be the result of this ARP request?
Router_1 will drop the broadcast and reply with the MAC address of the next hop router.
Switch_A will reply with the MAC address of the Router_1 E0 interface.
Switch_A and Switch_B will continuously flood the message onto the network.
The message will cycle around the network until its TTL is exceeded.

8. What is the first step in the process of convergence in a spanning tree topology?
election of the root bridge
blocking of the non-designated ports
selection of the designated trunk port
determination of the designated port for each segment

9. How can a network administrator influence which STP switch becomes the root bridge?
Configure all the interfaces on the switch as the static root ports.
Change the BPDU to a lower value than that of the other switches in the network.
Assign a lower IP address to the switch than that of the other switches in the network.
Set the switch priority to a smaller value than that of the other switches in the network.

10. Refer to the exhibit. The spanning-tree port priority of each interface is at the default setting. The network administrator enters the spanning-tree vlan 1 root primary command on S4. What is the effect of the command?
Spanning tree blocks Gi0/1 on S3.
Gi0/2 on S3 transitions to a root port.
Port priority makes Gi0/2 on S1 a root port.
S4 is already the root bridge, so there are no port changes.

11. What two features of the Spanning-Tree Protocol contribute to the time it takes for a switched network to converge after a topology change occurs? (Choose two.)
the max-age timer
the spanning-tree hold down timer
the forward delay
the spanning-tree path cost
the blocking delay

12. In which STP state does a port record MAC addresses but not forward user data?
blocking
Learning
disabling
listening
forwarding

13. Which three statements are accurate regarding RSTP and STP? (Choose three.)
RSTP uses a faster algorithm to determine root ports.
RSTP introduced the extended system ID to allow for more than 4096 VLANs.
Both RSTP and STP use the portfast command to allow ports to immediately transition to forwarding state.
Like STP PortFast, an RSTP edge port that receives a BPDU loses its edge port status immediately and becomes a normal spanning-tree port.
Configuration commands to establish primary and secondary root bridges are identical for STP and RSTP.
Because of the format of the BPDU packet, RSTP is backward compatible with STP.

14. What two elements will exist in a converged network with one spanning tree? (Choose two.)
one root bridge per network
all non-designated ports forwarding
one root port per non-root bridge
multiple designated ports per segment
one designated port per network

15. Which statement or set of paired statements correctly compares STP with RSTP?
STP and RSTP use the same BPDU format.
STP specifies backup ports. RSTP has only root ports, alternate ports, and designated ports.
STP port states are independent of port roles. RSTP ties together the port state and port role.
STP waits for the network to converge before placing ports into forwarding state. RSTP places alternate ports into forwarding state immediately.

16. Refer to the exhibit. What can be determined from the output shown?
Two hosts communicating between ports Fa0/2 and Fa0/4 have a cost of 38.
The priority was statically configured to identify the root.
STP is disabled on this switch.
The timers have been altered to reduce convergence time.

17. Which two criteria does a switch use to select the root bridge? (Choose two.)
bridge priority
switching speed
number of ports
base MAC address
switch location
memory size

18. What three link types have been defined for Rapid Spanning-Tree Protocol? (Choose three.)
Shared
end-to-end
edge-type
boundary-type
point-to-many
point-to-point

19. What Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP) role is assigned to the forwarding port elected for every switched Ethernet LAN segment?
alternate
backup
Designated
root

20. When PVST+ was developed, the Bridge ID was modified to include which information?
bridge priority
MAC address
protocol
VLAN ID

CCNA 3:Module 4

2008-08-11T05:32:00.000-07:00

Options With Highlight Colours are Correct Answer

1. Refer to the exhibit. The switches in the exhibit are connected with trunks within the same VTP management domain. Each switch is labeled with its VTP mode. A new VLAN is added to Switch3. This VLAN does not show up on the other switches. What is the reason for this?
VLANs cannot be created on transparent mode switches.
Transparent mode switches do not forward VTP advertisements.
VLANs created on transparent mode switches are not included in VTP advertisements.
Server mode switches neither listen to nor forward VTP messages from transparent mode switches.

2. Which two statements are true about the implementation of VTP? (Choose two.)
Switches must be connected via trunks.
The VTP domain name is case sensitive.
Transparent mode switches cannot be configured with new VLANs.
The VTP password is mandatory and case sensitive.
Switches that use VTP must have the same switch name.

3. Which two statements describe VTP transparent mode operation? (Choose two.)
Transparent mode switches can create VLAN management information.
Transparent mode switches can add VLANs of local significance only.
Transparent mode switches pass any VLAN management information that they receive to other switches.
Transparent mode switches can adopt VLAN management changes that are received from other switches.
Transparent mode switches originate updates about the status of their VLANS and inform other switches about that status.

4. Which three VTP parameters must be identical on all switches to participate in the same VTP domain? (Choose three.)
revision number
domain name
pruning
mode
domain password
version number

5. What causes a VTP configured switch to issue a summary advertisement?
A five-minute update timer has elapsed.
A port on the switch has been shutdown.
The switch is changed to the transparent mode.
A new host has been attached to a switch in the management domain.

6. Refer to the exhibit. Switches SW1 and SW2 are interconnected via a trunk link but failed to exchange VLAN information. The network administrator issued the show vtp status command to troubleshoot the problem. On the basis of the provided command output, what could be done to correct the problem?
Switch SW2 must be configured as a VTP client.
The switches must be interconnected via an access link.
The switches must be configured with the same VTP domain name.
Both switches must be configured with the same VTP revision number.

7. Refer to the exhibit. Which two facts can be confirmed by this output? (Choose two.)
If this switch is added to an established network, the other VTP-enabled switches in the same VTP domain will consider their own VLAN information to be more recent than the VLAN information advertised by this switch.
This switch shows no configuration revision errors.
This switch has established two-way communication with the neighboring devices.
This switch is configured to advertise its VLAN configuration to other VTP-enabled switches in the same VTP domain.
This switch is configured to allows the network manager to maximize bandwidth by restricting traffic to specific network devices.

8. Refer to the exhibit. Switch S1 is in VTP server mode. Switches S2 and S3 are in client mode. An administrator accidentally disconnects the cable from F0/1 on S2. What will the effect be on S2?
S2 will automatically transition to VTP transparent mode.
S2 will remove all VLANs from the VLAN database until the cable is reconnected.
S2 will retain the VLANs as of the latest known revision, but will lose the VLANs if it is reloaded.
S2 will automatically send a VTP request advertisement to 172.17.99.11 when the cable is reconnected.

9. Refer to the exhibit. What information can be learned from the output provided?
It verifies the configured VTP password.
It verifies the VTP domain is configured to use VTP version 2.
It verifies VTP advertisements are being exchanged.
It verifies the VTP domain name is V1.

10. How are VTP messages sent between switches in a domain?
Layer 2 broadcast
Layer 2 multicast
Layer 2 unicast
Layer 3 broadcast
Layer 3 multicast
Layer 3 unicast

11. What statement describes the default propagation of VLANs on a trunked link?
only VLAN 1
all VLANs
no VLANs
the native VLAN

12. Which two statements are true about VTP pruning? (Choose two.)
Pruning is enabled by default.
Pruning can only be configured on VTP servers.
Pruning must be configured on all VTP servers in the domain.
VLANs on VTP client-mode switches will not be pruned.
Pruning will prevent unnecessary flooding of broadcasts across trunks.

13. What does a client mode switch in a VTP management domain do when it receives a summary advertisement with a revision number higher than its current revision number?
It suspends forwarding until a subset advertisement update arrives.
It issues an advertisement request for new VLAN information.
It increments the revision number and forwards it to other switches.
It deletes the VLANs not included in the summary advertisement.
It issues summary advertisements to advise other switches of status changes.

14. Refer to the exhibit. All switches in the network participate in the same VTP domain. What happens when the new switch SW2 with a default configuration and revision number of 0 is inserted in the existing VTP domain Lab_Network?
The switch operates as a VTP client.
The switch operates in VTP transparent mode.
The switch operates as a VTP server and deletes the existing VLAN configuration in the domain.
The switch operates as a VTP server, but does not impact the existing VLAN configuration in the domain.
The switch operates as a VTP server in the default VTP domain and does not affect the configuration in the existing VTP domain.

15. What are two features of VTP client mode operation? (Choose two.)
unable to add VLANs
can add VLANs of local significance
forward broadcasts out all ports with no respect to VLAN information
can only pass VLAN management information without adopting changes
can forward VLAN information to other switches in the same VTP domain

16. Refer to the exhibit. S2 was previously used in a lab environment and has been added to the production network in server mode. The lab and production networks use the same VTP domain name, so the network administrator made no configuration changes to S2 before adding it to the production network. The lab domain has a higher revision number. After S2 was added to the production network, many computers lost network connectivity. What will solve the problem?
Reset the revision number on S2 with either the delete VTP command or by changing the domain name and then changing it back.
Re-enter all appropriate VLANs, except VLAN 1, manually on Switch1 so that they propagate throughout the network.*
Change S1 to transparent VTP mode to reclaim all VLANs in vlan.dat and change back to server mode.
Change S2 to client mode so the VLANs will automatically propagate.

17. A network administrator is replacing a failed switch with a switch that was previously on the network. What precautionary step should the administrator take on the replacement switch to avoid incorrect VLAN information from propagating through the network?
Enable VTP pruning.
Change the VTP domain name.
Change the VTP mode to client.
Change all the interfaces on the switch to access ports.

18. Refer to the exhibit. Switch1 is not participating in the VTP management process with the other switches that are shown in the exhibit. What are two possible explanations for this? (Choose two.)
Switch1 is in client mode.
Switch2 is in server mode.
Switch2 is in transparent mode.
Switch1 is in a different management domain.
Switch1 has end devices that are connected to the ports.
Switch1 is using VTP version 1, and Switch2 is using VTP version 2.

19. Refer to the exhibit. All switches in the VTP domain are new. Switch SW1 is configured as a VTP server, switches SW2 and SW4 are configured as VTP clients, and switch SW3 is configured in VTP transparent mode. Which switch or switches receive VTP updates and synchronize their VLAN configuration based on those updates?
All switches receive updates and synchronize VLAN information.
Only switch SW2 receives updates and synchronizes VLAN information.
Only switches SW3 and SW4 receive updates and synchronize VLAN information.
SW3 and SW4 receive updates, but only switch SW4 synchronizes VLAN information.

20. Which statement is true when VTP is configured on a switched network that incorporates VLANs?
VTP is only compatible with the 802.1Q standard.
VTP adds to the complexity of managing a switched network.
VTP allows a switch to be configured to belong to more than one VTP domain.
VTP dynamically communicates VLAN changes to all switches in the same VTP domain.

CCNA 3:Module 3

2008-08-11T05:31:00.000-07:00

Options With Highlight Colours are Correct Answer

1. What statement about the 802.1q trunking protocol is true?
802.1q is Cisco proprietary.
802.1q frames are mapped to VLANs by MAC address.
802.1q does NOT require the FCS of the original frame to be recalculated.
802.1q will not perform operations on frames that are forwarded out access ports.

2. Which two statements describe the benefits of VLANs? (Choose two.)
VLANs improve network performance by regulating flow control and window size.
VLANs enable switches to route packets to remote networks via VLAN ID filtering.
VLANs reduce network cost by reducing the number of physical ports required on switches.
VLANs improve network security by isolating users that have access to sensitive data and applications.
VLANs divide a network into smaller logical networks, resulting in lower susceptibility to broadcast storms.

3. What are two characteristics of VLAN1 in a default switch configuration? (Choose two.)
VLAN1 should renamed.
VLAN 1 is the management VLAN.
All switch ports are members of VLAN1.
Only switch port 0/1 is assigned to VLAN1.
Links between switches must be members of VLAN1.

4. Refer to the exhibit. SW1 and SW2 are new switches being installed in the topology shown in the exhibit. Interface Fa0/1 on switch SW1 has been configured with trunk mode “on”. Which statement is true about forming a trunk link between the switches SW1 and SW2?
Interface Fa0/2 on switch SW2 will negotiate to become a trunk link if it supports DTP.
Interface Fa0/2 on switch SW2 can only become a trunk link if statically configured as a trunk.
Interface Fa0/1 converts the neighboring link on the adjacent switch into a trunk link if the neighboring interface is configured in nonegotiate mode.
Interface Fa0/1 converts the neighboring link on the adjacent switch into a trunk link automatically with no consideration of the configuration on the neighboring interface.

5. Refer to the exhibit. Computer 1 sends a frame to computer 4. On which links along the path between computer 1 and computer 4 will a VLAN ID tag be included with the frame?
A
A, B
A, B, D, G
A, D, F
C, E
C, E, F

6. The network administrator wants to separate hosts in Building A into two VLANs numbered 20 and 30. Which two statements are true concerning VLAN configuration? (Choose two.)
The VLANs may be named.
VLAN information is saved in the startup configuration.
Non-default VLANs created manually must use the extended range VLAN numbers.
The network administrator may create the VLANs in either global configuration mode or VLAN database mode.
Both VLANs may be named BUILDING_A to distinguish them from other VLANs in different geographical locations.

7. Refer to the exhibit. Which two conclusions can be drawn regarding the switch that produced the output shown? (Choose two.)
The network administrator configured VLANs 1002-1005.
The VLANs are in the active state and are in the process of negotiating configuration parameters.
A FDDI trunk has been configured on this switch.
The command switchport access vlan 20 was entered in interface configuration mode for Fast Ethernet interface 0/1.
Devices attached to ports fa0/5 through fa0/8 cannot communicate with devices attached to ports fa0/9 through fa0/12 without the use of a Layer 3 device.

8. What happens to the member ports of a VLAN when the VLAN is deleted?
The ports cannot communicate with other ports.
The ports default back to the management VLAN.
The ports automatically become a part of VLAN1.
The ports remain a part of that VLAN until the switch is rebooted. They then become members of the management VLAN.

9. A network administrator is removing several VLANs from a switch. When the administrator enters the no vlan 1 command, an error is received. Why did this command generate an error?
VLAN 1 can never be deleted.
VLAN 1 can only be deleted by deleting the vlan.dat file.
VLAN 1 can not be deleted until all ports have been removed from it.
VLAN 1 can not be deleted until another VLAN has been assigned its responsibilities.

10. What is the effect of the switchport mode dynamic desirable command?
DTP cannot negotiate the trunk since the native VLAN is not the default VLAN.
The remote connected interface cannot negotiate a trunk unless it is also configured as dynamic desirable.
The connected devices dynamically determine when data for multiple VLANs must be transmitted across the link and bring the trunk up as needed.
A trunk link is formed if the remote connected device is configured with the switchport mode dynamic auto or switchport mode trunk commands.

11. Refer to the exhibit. The exhibited configurations do not allow the switches to form a trunk. What is the most likely cause of this problem?
Cisco switches only support the ISL trunking protocol.
The trunk cannot be negotiated with both ends set to auto.
By default, Switch1 will only allow VLAN 5 across the link.
A common native VLAN should have been configured on the switches.

12. Switch port fa0/1 was manually configured as a trunk, but now it will be used to connect a host to the network. How should the network administrator reconfigure switch port Fa0/1?
Disable DTP.
Delete any VLANs currently being trunked through port Fa0/1.
Administratively shut down and re-enable the interface to return it to default.
Enter the switchport mode access command in interface configuration mode.

13. Refer to the exhibit. Computer B is unable to communicate with computer D. What is the most likely cause of this problem?
The link between the switches is up but not trunked.
VLAN 3 is not an allowed VLAN to enter the trunk between the switches.
The router is not properly configured to route traffic between the VLANs.
Computer D does not have a proper address for the VLAN 3 address space.

14. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has just added VLAN 50 to Switch1 and Switch2 and assigned hosts on the IP addresses of the VLAN in the 10.1.50.0/24 subnet range. Computer A can communicate with computer B, but not with computer C or computer D. What is the most likely cause of this problem?
There is a native VLAN mismatch.
The link between Switch1 and Switch2 is up but not trunked.
The router is not properly configured for inter-VLAN routing.
VLAN 50 is not allowed to entering the trunk between Switch1 and Switch2.

15. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true concerning interface Fa0/5?
The default native VLAN is being used.
The trunking mode is set to auto.
Trunking can occur with non-Cisco switches.
VLAN information about the interface encapsulates the Ethernet frames.

16. What statements describe how hosts on VLANs communicate?
Hosts on different VLANs use VTP to negotiate a trunk.
Hosts on different VLANs communicate through routers.
Hosts on different VLANs should be in the same IP network.
Hosts on different VLANs examine VLAN ID in the frame tagging to determine if the frame for their network.

17. Refer to the exhibit. How far is a broadcast frame that is sent by computer A propagated in the LAN domain?
none of the computers will receive the broadcast frame
computer A, computer B, computer C
computer A, computer D, computer G
computer B, computer C
computer D, computer G
computer A, computer B, computer C, computer D, computer E, computer F, computer G, computer H, computer I

18. What is a valid consideration for planning VLAN traffic across multiple switches?
Configuring interswitch connections as trunks will cause all hosts on any VLAN to receive broadcasts from the other VLANs.
A trunk connection is affected by broadcast storms on any particular VLAN that is carried by that trunk.
Restricting trunk connections between switches to a single VLAN will improve efficiency of port usage.
Carrying all required VLANs on a single access port will ensure proper traffic separation.

19. Which two statements about the 802.1q trunking protocol are true? (Choose two.)
802.1q is Cisco proprietary.
802.1q frames are mapped to VLANs by MAC address.
If 802.1q is used on a frame, the FCS must be recalculated.
802.1q will not perform operations on frames that are forwarded out access ports.
802.1q allows the encapsulation of the original frame to identify the VLAN from which a frame originated.

20. What switch port modes will allow a switch to successfully form a trunking link if the neighboring switch port is in "dynamic desirable" mode?
dynamic desirable mode
on or dynamic desirable mode
on, auto, or dynamic desirable mode
on, auto, dynamic desirable, or nonegotiate mode

21. Refer to the exhibit. Company HR is adding PC4, a specialized application workstation, to a new company office. The company will add a switch, S3, connected via a trunk link to S2, another switch. For security reasons the new PC will reside in the HR VLAN, VLAN 10. The new office will use the 172.17.11.0/24 subnet. After installation, the existing PCs are unable to access shares on PC4. What is the likely cause?
The switch to switch connection must be configured as an access port to permit access to VLAN 10 on S3.
The new PC is on a different subnet so Fa0/2 on S3 must be configured as a trunk port.
PC4 must use the same subnet as the other HR VLAN PCs.
A single VLAN cannot span multiple switches.

22. What must the network administrator do to remove Fast Ethernet port fa0/1 from VLAN 2 and assign it to VLAN 3?
Enter the no vlan 2 and the vlan 3 commands in global configuration mode.
Enter the switchport access vlan 3 command in interface configuration mode.
Enter the switchport trunk native vlan 3 command in interface configuration mode.
Enter the no shutdown in interface configuration mode to return it to the default configuration and then configure the port for VLAN 3.

CCNA 3:Module 2

2008-08-11T05:29:00.000-07:00

Options With Highlight Colours are Correct Answer

1. When a switch receives a frame and the source MAC address is not found in the switching table, what action will be taken by the switch to process the incoming frame?
The switch will request that the sending node resend the frame.
The switch will issue an ARP request to confirm that the source exists.
The switch will map the source MAC address to the port on which it was received.
The switch ends an acknowledgement frame to the source MAC of this incoming frame.

2. Refer to the exhibit. How many collision domains are depicted in the network?
1
2
4
6
7
8

3. Refer to the exhibit. What action does SW1 take on a frame sent from PC_A to PC_C if the MAC address table of SW1 is empty?
SW1 drops the frame.
SW1 floods the frame on all ports on SW1, except port Fa0/1.
SW1 floods the frame on all ports on the switch, except Fa0/23 and Fa0/1.
SW1 uses the CDP protocol to synchronize the MAC tables on both switches and then forwards the frame to all ports on SW2.

4. If a network administrator enters these commands in global configuration mode on a switch, what will be the result?

Switch1(config-line)# line console 0

Switch1(config-line)# password cisco

Switch1(config-line)# login
to secure the console port with the password "cisco"
to deny access to the console port by specifying 0 lines are available
to gain access to line configuration mode by supplying the required password
to configure the privilege exec password that will be used for remote access

5. A network administrator uses the CLI to enter a command that requires several parameters. The switch responds with "% Incomplete command". The administrator cannot remember the missing parameters. What can the administrator do to get the parameter information?
append ? to the last parameter
append a space and then ? to the last parameter
use Ctrl-P to show a parameter list
use the Tab key to show which options are available

6. Refer to the exhibit. The switch and the hub have default configurations, and the switch has built its CAM table. Which of the hosts will capture a copy of the frame when workstation A sends a unicast packet to workstation C?
workstation C
workstations B and C
workstations A, B, C, and the interfaces of the router
workstations B, C, D, E, F, and interfaces of the router

7. Which two statements are true regarding switch port security? (Choose two.)
The three configurable violation modes all log violations via SNMP.
Dynamically learned secure MAC addresses are lost when the switch reboots.
The three configurable violation modes all require user intervention to re-enable ports.
After entering the sticky parameter, only MAC addresses subsequently learned are converted to secure MAC addresses.
If fewer than the maximum number of MAC addresses for a port are configured statically, dynamically learned addresses are added to CAM until the maximum number is reached.

8. Refer to the exhibit. The exhibit shows partial output of the show running-config command. The enable password on this switch is "cisco." What can be determined from the output shown?
The enable password is encrypted by default.
An MD5 hashing algorithm was used on all encrypted passwords.
Any configured line mode passwords will be encrypted in this configuration.
This line represents most secure privileged EXEC mode password possible.

9. What are two ways to make a switch less vulnerable to attacks like MAC address flooding, CDP attacks, and Telnet attacks? (Choose two.)
Enable CDP on the switch.
Change passwords regularly.
Turn off unnecessary services.
Enable the HTTP server on the switch.
Use the enable password rather than the enable secret password.

10. Refer to the exhibit. The switch and workstation are administratively configured for full-duplex operation. Which statement accurately reflects the operation of this link?
No collisions will occur on this link.
Only one of the devices can transmit at a time.
The switch will have priority for transmitting data.
The devices will default back to half duplex if excessive collisions occur.

11. Where is the startup configuration stored?
DRAM
NVRAM
ROM
startup-config.text

12. Refer to the exhibit. What happens when Host 1 attempts to send data?
Frames from Host 1 cause the interface to shut down.
Frames from Host 1 are dropped and no log message is sent.
Frames from Host 1 create a MAC address entry in the running-config.
Frames from Host 1 will remove all MAC address entries in the address table.

13. Which statement is true about the command banner login "Authorized personnel Only" issued on a switch?
The command is entered in privileged EXEC mode.
The command will cause the message Authorized personnel Only to display before a user logs in.
The command will generate the error message % Ambiguous command: "banner motd" ” to be displayed.
The command will cause the message End with the character “%” to be displayed after the command is entered into the switch.

14. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator’s attempts to connect to Switch1 via Secure Shell are failing. What is most likely the problem?
incorrect vty lines configured
incompatible Secure Shell version
incorrect default gateway address
vty lines that are configured to allow only Telnet

15. What happens when the transport input ssh command is entered on the switch vty lines?
The SSH client on the switch is enabled.
Communication between the switch and remote users is encrypted.
A username/password combination is no longer needed to establish a secure remote connection to the switch.
The switch requires remote connections via proprietary client software.

16. Which two statements about Layer 2 Ethernet switches are true? (Choose two.)
Layer 2 switches prevent broadcasts.
Layer 2 switches have multiple collision domains.
Layer 2 switches route traffic between different networks.
Layer 2 switches decrease the number of broadcast domains.
Layer 2 switches can send traffic based on the destination MAC address.

17. Refer to the exhibit. Which hosts will receive a broadcast frame sent from Host A?
hosts A and B
hosts B and C
hosts D and E
hosts A, B, and C
hosts B, C, D, and E
hosts A, B, C, D, E, and F

18. Which command line interface (CLI) mode allows users to configure switch parameters, such as the hostname and password?
user EXEC mode
privileged EXEC mode
global configuration mode
interface configuration mode

19. Which two statements are true about EXEC mode passwords? (Choose two.)
The enable secret password command stores the configured password in plain text.
The enable secret password command provides better security than the enable password.
The enable password and enable secret password protect access to privileged EXEC mode.
The service password-encryption command is required to encrypt the enable secret password.
Best practices require both the enable password and enable secret password to be configured and used simultaneously.

20. When a collision occurs in a network using CSMA/CD, how do hosts with data to transmit respond after the backoff period has expired?
The hosts return to a listen-before-transmit mode.
The hosts creating the collision have priority to send data.
The hosts creating the collision retransmit the last 16 frames.
The hosts extend their delay period to allow for rapid transmission.

CCNA 3:Module 1

2008-08-11T05:27:00.000-07:00

Options With Highlight Colours are Correct Answer

1. A network technician is asked to examine an existing switched network. Following this examination, the technician makes recommendations for adding new switches where needed and replacing existing equipment that hampers performance. The technician is given a budget and asked to proceed. Which two pieces of information would be helpful in determining necessary port density for new switches? (Choose two.)
forwarding rate
traffic flow analysis
expected future growth
number of required core connections
number of hubs that are needed in the access layer to increase performance

2. Configuring communication between devices on different VLANs requires the use of which layer of the OSI model?
Layer 1
Layer 3
Layer 4
Layer 5

3. What is the likely impact of moving a conventional company architecture to a completely converged network?
Local analog phone service can be completely outsourced to cost-effective providers.
The Ethernet VLAN structure is less complex.
A shared infrastructure is created resulting in a single network to manage.
QoS issues are greatly reduced.
There is less bandwidth competition between voice and video streams

4. Which hierarchical design model layer controls the flow of network traffic using policies and delineates broadcast domains by performing routing functions between virtual LANs (VLANs)?
application
access
distribution
network
core

5. A network administrator is selecting a switch that will operate at the network core. Which three features should the switch support for optimum network performance and reliability? (Choose three.)
port security
security policies
10 Gigabit Ethernet
quality of service (QoS)
hot-swappable hardware
Power over Ethernet (PoE)

6. Which three features are commonly supported at the distribution layer of the Cisco hierarchical network model? (Choose three.)
security policies
Power over Ethernet
switch port security
quality of service
Layer 3 functionality
end user access to network

7. Which two features are supported at all three levels of the Cisco three-layer hierarchical model? (Choose two.)
Power over Ethernet
load balancing across redundant trunk links
redundant components
Quality of Service
link aggregation

8. Which two characteristics are associated with enterprise level switches? (Choose two.)
low port density
high forwarding rate
high latency level
support link aggregation
predefined number of ports

9. Link aggregation should be implemented at which layer of the hierarchical network?
core only
distribution and core
access and distribution
access, distribution, and core

10. For organizations that are implementing a voice over IP solution, what functionality should be enabled at all three layers of the hierarchical network?
Power over Ethernet
quality of service
switch port security
inter-VLAN routing

11. Which layer of the hierarchical design model provides a means of connecting devices to the network and controlling which devices are allowed to communicate on the network?
application
access
distribution
network
core

12. At which heirarchical layer are switches normally not required to process all ports at wire speed?
core layer
distribution layer
access layer
entry layer

13. Which layer of the OSI model does an access layer LAN switch use to make a forwarding decision?
Layer 1
Layer 2
Layer 3
Layer 4

14. Refer to the exhibit. What characteristic of hierarchical network designs is exhibited by having SW3 connected to both SW1 and Sw2?
scalability
security
redundancy
maintainability

15. Which layer of the hierarchical network design model is refered to as the high-speed backbone of the internetwork, where high availability and redundancy are critical?
access layer
core layer
data-link layer
distribution layer
network layer
physical layer

16. What statement best describes a modular switch?
a slim-line chassis
allows interconnection of switches on redundant backplane
defined physical characteristics
flexible characteristics

17. A technician is attempting to explain Cisco StackWise technology to a client that is setting up three stackable switches. Which explanation accurately describes StackWise technology?
StackWise technology allows up to eight ports to be bound together to increase available bandwidth.
StackWise technology allows the switch to deliver power to end devices by using existing Ethernet cabling.
StackWise technology allows the switch capabilities and ports to be expanded by the addition of line cards.
StackWise technology allows up to nine switches to be interconnected via the use of a fully redundant backplane.

18. Which hierarchical design characteristic would be recommended at both the core and distribution layers to protect the network in the case of a route failure?
PoE
redundancy
aggregation
access lists

19. Which feature supports higher throughput in switched networks by combining multiple switch ports?
convergence
redundant links
link aggregation
network diameter

20. Refer to the exhibit. Beginning with HR servers and workstations, a network engineer is designing a new security structure for the network. Which set of policies adheres to the hierarchical network model design principles?
Implement Layer 3 switching on S1 to reduce the packet processing load on D1 and D2. Install all security processing on S1 to reduce network traffic load.
Configure port security options on S1. Use Layer 3 access control features on D1 and D2 to limit access to the HR servers to just the HR subnet.
Move all HR assets out of the data center and connect them to S1. Use Layer 3 security functions on S1 to deny all traffic into and out of S1.
Perform all port access and Layer 3 security functions on C1.

CCNA 2:Final Set 3

2008-08-11T05:24:00.000-07:00

Options With Highlight Colours are Correct Answer

1. Refer to the exhibit. The output of the show ip route command for three routers on a network is displayed. All routers are operational, pings are not blocked on this network, and no default routes are installed. Which two pings will fail? (Choose two.)
from R1 to 172.16.1.1
from R1 to 192.168.3.1
from R2 to 192.168.1.1
from R2 to 192.168.3.1
from R3 to 192.168.1.1

2. A router that uses the RIP routing protocol has an entry for a network in the routing table. It then receives an update with another entry for the same destination network but with a lower hop count. What action will the router take for this new update?
It will append the update information to the routing table.
It will invalidate the entry for that network in the routing table.
It will replace the existing routing table entry with the new information.
It will ignore the new update.

3. Which two statements are true for OSPF Hello packets? (Choose two.)
They negotiate correct parameters among neighboring interfaces.
They are used for dynamic neighbor discovery.
They use timers to elect the designated router with the fastest link.
They are received from all routers on the network and used to determine the complete network topology.
They are used to maintain neighbor relationships.

4. A network administrator needs to configure a single router to load-balance the traffic over unequal cost paths. Which routing protocol should the administrator use?
EIGRP
OSPF
RIPv1
RIPv2

5. Which two statements are correct about the split horizon with poison reverse method of routing loop prevention? (Choose two.)
It is enabled by default on all Cisco IOS implementations.
It assigns a value that represents an infinite metric to the poisoned route.
It sends back the poisoned route update to the same interface from where it was received.
It instructs routers to hold all changes that might affect routes, for a specified period of time.
It limits the number of hops a packet can traverse through the network before it is discarded.

6. Refer to the exhibit. The show cdp neighbors command was run on one of the devices as shown. Based on this information, which two facts can be determined? (Choose two.)
The command was run on the router.
ABCD is a non- CISCO device.
Layer 3 connectivity between two devices exists.
ABCD supports routing capability.
ABCD is connected to the Fa0/0 interface of the neighboring device.

7. Refer to the exhibit. The network has three connected routers: R1, R2 and R3. The routes of all three routers are displayed. What can be verified from the output?
R1 and R3 are connected to each other via the S0/0/0 interface.
The IP address of the S0/0/0 interface of R1 is 10.1.1.2.
The IP address of the S0/0/1 interface of R2 is 10.3.3.2.
R2 is connected to the S0/0/1 interface of R3.

8. Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements are true of the routing table for Router1? (Choose three.)
The route to network 172.16.0.0 has an AD of 156160.
Network 192.168.0.16 can best be reached using FastEthernet0/0.
The AD of EIGRP routes has been manually changed to a value other than the default value.
Router1 is running both the EIGRP and OSPF routing process.
Network 172.17.0.0 can only be reached using a default route.
No default route has been configured.

9. Refer to the exhibit. All the routers are properly configured to use the RIP routing protocol with default settings, and the network is fully converged. Router A is forwarding data to router E. Which statement is true about the routing path?
Router A will send the data via the A-D-E path that is listed in the routing table.
Router A will load-balance the traffic between A-B-E and A-C-E.
Router A will determine that all paths have equal metric cost.
Router A will send the data through A-D-E and keep A-B-E and A-C-E as the backup paths.

10. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has run the following command on R1.R1# ip route 192.168.2.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.1.2What is the result of running this command?
Traffic for network 192.168.2.0 is forwarded to 172.16.1.2.
This route is automatically propagated throughout the entire network.
Traffic for all networks is forwarded to 172.16.1.2.
The command invokes a dynamic routing protocol for 192.168.2.0.

11. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is planning IP addressing of a new network. What part of this addressing scheme must be changed to allow communication between host A and the server?
the IP address of the server
the default gateway of host A
the IP address of host A
the default gateway of the server

12. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured OSPF using the following command:network 192.168.1.32 0.0.0.31 area 0Which router interface will participate in OSPF?
FastEthernet0/0
FastEthernet0/1
Serial0/0/0
Serial0/0/1

13. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are configured to run RIPv1 and are fully converged. Which routing updates will be received by R3?
updates for 192.168.1.0/24 and 192.168.2.0/24
updates for 172.16.2.0/24 and 172.16.3.0/24
updates for 172.16.1.0/24, 172.16.2.0/24 and 172.16.3.0/24
updates for 172.16.0.0/16

14. Refer to the exhibit. Both routers are using the RIP protocol. Devices on the 192.168.1.1 network can ping the S0/0/0 interface on R2 but cannot ping devices on the 192.168.2.1 network. What is a possible cause of this problem?
The routers are configured with different versions of RIP.
R2 is not forwarding the routing updates.
The R1 configuration should include the no auto-summary command.
The maximum path number has been exceeded.

15. When a router boots, what is the default order to locate the Cisco IOS if there is no boot system command?
ROM, TFTP server, flash
flash, TFTP server, RAM
flash, NVRAM, TFTP server
ROM, flash, TFTP server

16. Refer to the exhibit. Which router is advertising subnet 172.16.1.32/28?
Router1
Router2
Router3
Router4

17. Which mechanism helps to avoid routing loops by advertising a metric of infinity?
route poisoning
split horizon
hold-down timer
triggered updates

18. Refer to the exhibit. What is the meaning of the highlighted value 120?
It is the metric that is calculated by the routing protocol.
It is the value that is used by the DUAL algorithm to determine the bandwidth for the link.
It is the administrative distance of the routing protocol.
It is the hold-down time, measured in seconds, before the next update.

19. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator successfully pings R1 from R3. Next, the administrator runs the show cdp neighbors command on R3. The output of this command is displayed.What are two reasons for the absence of R1 in the output? (Choose two.)
There is a Layer 2 connectivity problem between R1 and R3.
The Fa0/0 interface of R1 is configured with an incorrect IP address.
The no cdp run command has been run at R1.
The no cdp enable command has been run at Fa0/1 interface of R3.
R1 is powered off.

20. Refer to the exhibit. A device is required to complete the connection between router R1 and the WAN. Which two devices can be used for this? (Choose two.)
a CSU/DSU device
a modem
an Ethernet switch
a hub
a bridge

21. In a complex lab test environment, a router has discovered four paths to 192.168.1.0/24 via the use of the RIP routing process. Which route will be installed in the routing table after the discovery of all four paths?
R 192.168.1.0/24 [120/3] via 192.168.110.1, 00:00:17, Serial0/1/0
R 192.168.1.0/24 [120/2] via 192.168.200.1, 00:00:17, Serial0/0/0
R 192.168.1.0/24 [120/1] via 192.168.100.1, 00:00:17, Serial0/0/1
R 192.168.1.0/24 [120/4] via 192.168.101.1, 00:00:17, Serial0/1/1

22. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator accesses router R1 from the console port to configure a newly connected interface. What passwords will the network administrator need to enter to make the connection and the necessary configuration changes?
the Cisco123 password only
the Cisco789 password only
the Cisco001 password only
the Cisco001 password and the Cisco789 passwords
the Cisco001 password and the Cisco123 passwords

23. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator adds this command to router R1: ip route 192.168.2.0 255.255.255.0 S0/0/0. What is the result of adding this command?
This route is automatically propagated throughout the network.
The traffic for network 172.16.1.0 is forwarded to network 192.168.2.0.
A static route is established.
The traffic for all Class C networks is forwarded to 172.16.1.2.

24. Refer to the exhibit. The router receives a packet that is destined for 192.168.5.79. How will the router handle this packet?
It will forward the packet via the Serial0/0/1 interface.
It will forward the packet via the FastEthernet0/0 interface.
It will forward the packet via the Serial0/0/0 interface.
It will drop the packet.

25. Which two statements are true about classless routing protocols? (Choose two.)
They can be used for discontiguous subnets.
They can forward supernet routes in routing updates.
They cannot implement classful routes in routing tables.
They use only a hop count metric.
They do not include the subnet mask in routing updates.

26. Refer to the exhibit. How many routes are child routes?
1
3
4
6

27. A router has EIGRP configured as the only routing protocol. In what two ways does EIGRP respond if there is no feasible successor route to a destination network and the successor route fails? (Choose two.)
It broadcasts hello packets to all routers in the network to re-establish neighbor adjacencies.
It sends queries to adjacent neighbors until a new successor route is found.
It immediately sends its entire routing table to its neighbors.
It sends queries to adjacent neighbors until the lost route is unknown to the neighbors.
It automatically forwards traffic to a fallback default route until a successor route is found.

28. Refer to the exhibit. Packets destined to which two networks will require the router to perform a recursive lookup? (Choose two.)
10.0.0.0/8
64.100.0.0/16
128.107.0.0/16
172.16.40.0/24
192.168.1.0/24
192.168.2.0/24

29. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true based on the exhibited output? (Choose two.)
The administrative distance of EIGRP has been set to 50.
All routes are stable.
The show ip eigrp topology command has been run on R1.
The serial interface between the two routers is down.
Each route has one feasible successor.

30. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are properly configured with default configurations and are running the OSPF routing protocol. The network is fully converged. A host on the 192.168.3.0/24 network is communicating with a host on the 192.168.2.0/24 network. Which path will be used to transmit the data?
The data will be transmitted via R3-R2.
The data will be transmitted via R3-R1-R2.
The traffic will be load-balanced between two paths — one via R3-R2, and the other via R3-R1-R2.
The data will be transmitted via R3-R2, and the other path via R3-R1-R2 will be retained as the backup path.

31. A network administrator has enabled RIP on routers B and C in the network diagram. Which of the following commands will prevent RIP updates from being sent to Router A?
A(config)# router rip

A(config-router)# passive-interface S0/0
B(config)# router rip

B(config-router)# network 192.168.25.48

B(config-router)# network 192.168.25.64
A(config)# router rip

A(config-router)# no network 192.168.25.32
B(config)# router rip

B(config-router)# passive-interface S0/0
A(config)# no router rip

32. Refer to the exhibit. The hosts on the R1 LAN are unable to access the Internet. What is incorrectly configured?
the IP address of the Fa0/0 interface at R1
the IP address of the S0/0/1 interface at R2
the IP address of the S0/0/0 interface at R1
the subnet mask of the S0/0/1 interface at R2

33. Refer to the exhibit. A ping from R1 to 10.1.1.2 is successful, but a ping from R1 to 192.168.2.0 fails. What is the cause of this problem?
There is no gateway of last resort at R1.
The serial interface between the two routers is down.
A default route is not configured on R1.
The static route for 192.168.2.0 is incorrectly configured.

34. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has run the show ip protocol command on R1. What can be determined from the exhibited output?
The router is using RIPv2.
The router is not forwarding routing updates.
The router is receiving updates for both versions of RIP.
The FastEthernet0/0 interface is down.

35. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are configured to use the EIGRP routing protocol with default settings, all routes are advertised on all routers, and the network is fully converged. Which path will the data take to travel between 172.16.1.0/24 and 192.168.100.0/24?
It will travel via A, B, and C.
It will travel via A, F, E, D, and C.
It will travel via A, G, H, and C.
The traffic will be load-balanced on all paths.

36. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are configured for OSPF area 0. The network administrator requires that R2 always be the DR and maintain adjacency.Which two configurations can achieve this? (Choose two.)
Change the OSPF area of R2 to a higher value.
Change the router ID for R2 by assigning the IP address 172.16.30.5/24 tothe Fa0/0 interface.
Change the priority values of the Fa0/0 interfaces of R1 and R3 to 0.
Configure a loopback interface on R2, with an IP address higher than any IPaddress on the other routers.
Configure R1 and R3 with an IP address whose value is higher than that of R2.

37. Refer to the exhibit. Host A is unable to access the Internet, and troubleshooting has revealed that this is due to an addressing problem. What is incorrectly configured in this network?
the IP address of the Fa0/0 interface of R1
the subnet mask of the S0/0/0 interface of R1
the IP address of the S0/0/0 interface of R1
the subnet mask of the S0/0/0 interface of R2

38. Refer to the exhibit. All routes are advertised and fully operational on all routers. Which statement is true about the path that the data will take from router A to router B?
If EIGRP is used with default configurations, the data will be equally distributed between two paths — A, D, B and A, C, D.
If RIPv1 is used with default configurations, the data will be load-balanced on all paths.
If EIGRP and OSPF are both used with default configurations, the data will be sent through paths learned by the OSPF protocol.
If RIPv2 is used with default configurations, the data will be equally distributed between two paths — A, D, B and A, C, D.

39. Refer to the exhibit. The interfaces of all routers are configured for OSPF area 0. R3 can ping R1, but the two routers are unable to establish a neighbor adjacency. What should the network administrator do to troubleshoot this problem?
Check if the interfaces of the routers are enabled.
Check the hello and dead intervals between the routers.
Check the process ID of both routers.
Check if CDP is enabled on all the routers.

40. Refer to the exhibit. What information can be determined from the highlighted output?
R1 is originating the route 172.30.200.32/28.
Automatic summarization is disabled.
The 172.30.200.16/28 network is one hop away from R1.
A classful routing protocol is being used.

41. Which two router component and operation pair are correctly described? (Choose two.)
DRAM - loads the bootstrap
RAM - stores the operating system
Flash - executes diagnostics at bootup
NVRAM - stores the configuration file
ROM - stores the backup configuration file
POST - runs diagnostics on hardware modules

42. Which routing protocol by default uses bandwidth and delay to calculate the metric of a route?
RIPv1
RIPv2
OSPF
EIGRP

43. Two routers need to be configured within a single OSPF area. Which two components need to be configured on both routers to achieve this? (Choose two.)
the same process ID
the same area ID
network addresses and wildcard masks
the same router ID
the same loop back address

44. Refer to the exhibit. The networks that are connected to R1 have been summarized for R2 as 192.168.136.0/21. Which packet destination address will R2 forward to R1?
192.168.135.1
192.168.142.1
192.168.144.1
192.168.128.1

45. Refer to the exhibit. R1 is running RIP with default parameters. R1 has learned four different paths with the same metrics to network 192.168.6.0. Which path or paths will R1 use to forward a packet that is destined to 192.168.6.10?
the first path that the router learned.
only the first two of the four paths that the router learned.
the last path that the router learned.
all four paths.

46. What are two functions of a router? (Choose two.)
It connects multiple IP networks.
It controls the flow of data via the use of Layer 2 addresses.
It determines the best path to send packets.
It manages the VLAN database.
It increases the size of the broadcast domain.

47. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about the routing process for this network?
A packet leaves interface Fa0/0 of R1 with the source MAC address as 000C.3010.9260.
The packet leaves interface Fa0/0 of R1 with the source MAC address as 000C.3010.9260.
The no shutdown command needs to run on the Fa0/0 interface of R1.
The Fa0/0 interface of R2 could be configured with the IP address 172.16.4.1/24.

48. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has run the show interface command. The output of this command is displayed. What is the first step that is required to make this interface operational?
Switch the cable with a known working cable.
Issue the no shutdown command on the interface.
Configure the interface as a loopback interface.
Set the encapsulation for the interface.

49. Refer to the exhibit. R1 is configured properly for a single area OSPF, and R2 has been recently installed in the network. Which set of commands is required to configure a single area OSPF for the networks that are connected to R2?
R2(config)# router ospf 1

R2(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 area 0

R2(config-router)# network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.3 area 0
R2(config)# router ospf 1

R2(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 area 0

R2(config)# router ospf 2

R2(config-router)# network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.3 area 0
R2(config)# router ospf 1

R2(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 area 0

R2(config-router)# network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.3 area 1
R2(config)# router ospf 1

R2(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 area 0

R2(config-router)# network 10.0.0.0 0.0.0.3 area 1

50. Refer to the exhibit. The command ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 S0/0/0 is run on router R2. What are the two results of this command? (Choose two.)
A static route will be updated in the routing table.
The traffic from the Internet will be directed to R2.
The traffic from the source network 172.16.0.0/22 will be blocked.
The route will be specified as the default route for all networks not defined in the routing table.
All the broadcasts will be forwarded via the S0/0/0 interface of R2.

51. Which three statements are true regarding the encapsulation and de-encapsulation of packets when traveling through a router? (Choose three.)
The router modifies the TTL field, decrementing it by one.
The router changes the source IP to the IP of the exit interface.
The router maintains the same source and destination IP.
The router changes the source physical address to the physical address of the exit interface.
The router changes the destination IP to the IP of the exit interface.
The router sends the packet out all other interfaces, besides the one it entered the router on.

52. What are two tasks that must be completed before two routers can use OSPF to form a neighbor adjacency? (Choose two.)
The routers must elect a designated router.
The routers must agree on the network type.
The routers must use the same dead interval.
The routers must exchange link state requests.
The routers must exchange database description packets.

53. Refer to the exhibit. Although both the routers can ping the serial interface of their neighbors, they are unable to ping the Ethernet interfaces of other routers. Which two statements are true for this network? (Choose two.)
The administrative distance has been set to 50 on both routers.
R2 is learning about network 192.168.1.0.
R1 is learning about network 192.168.2.0.
The network 10.1.1.0 command has not been run on both routers.
Autosummarization is enabled on both routers.

54. Which two situations require the use of a link-state protocol? (Choose two.)
Fast convergence of the network is critical.
The network is very large.
The network administrator has limited knowledge to configure and troubleshoot routing protocols.
The network is a flat network.
The capacity of the router is low.

55. Refer to the exhibit. What information can be determined from the displayed output?
EIGRP packets are waiting to be sent to the neighbors.
The adjacencies between the routers are yet to be established.
The IP address 192.168.10.10 is configured at serial interface S0/0/1 of router R2.
Router R2 is receiving hello packets from a neighbor with the IP address 192.168.10.10 via the R2 S0/0/1 interface.

56. Refer to the exhibit. PC1 is unable to access the Internet. What is the cause of the problem?
An incorrect IP address is configured between the two routers.
No static route is configured on Router2.
A routing loop has occurred.
No routing protocol is configured on either of the two routers.

57. Refer to the exhibit. What summarization should R2 use to advertise its LAN networks to R1?
172.16.0.0/24
172.16.4.0/22
172.16.4.0/23
172.16.4.0/24

CCNA 2:Final Set 2

2008-08-11T05:22:00.000-07:00

Options With Highlight Colours are Correct Answer

1. Refer to the exhibit. A new PC was deployed in the Sales network. It was given the host address of 192.168.10.31 with a default gateway of 192.168.10.17. The PC is not communicating with the network properly. What is the cause?
The address is in the wrong subnet.
192.168.10.31 is the broadcast address for this subnet.
The default gateway is incorrect.
The host address and default gateway are swapped.

2. Refer to the routing table shown in the exhibit. What is the meaning of the highlighted value 192?
It is the value assigned by the Dijkstra algorithm that designates the number of hops in the network.
It is the value used by the DUAL algorithm to determine the bandwidth for the link.
It is the metric, which is cost.
It is the administrative distance.

3. Refer to exhibit. Given the topology shown in the exhibit, what three commands are needed to configure EIGRP on the Paris router? (Choose three.)
Paris(config)# router eigrp 100
Paris(config)# router eigrp
Paris(config-router)# network 192.168.6.0
Paris(config-router)# network 192.168.7.0
Paris(config-router)# network 192.168.8.0
Paris(config-router)# network 192.168.9.0

4. What are three features of CDP? (Choose three.)
tests Layer 2 connectivity
provides a layer of security
operates a OSI layers 2 and 3
enabled by default on each interface
used for debugging Layer 4 connectivity issues
provides information on directly connected devices that have CDP enabled

5. Refer to the exhibit. What two statements are true based on the output shown? (Choose two.)
the reported distance to network 172.16.1.0 is 2172416
192.168.10.5 and 192.168.10.9 are feasible successors
neighbors 192.168.10.9 and 192.168.10.5 have auto summary disabled.
router 3 is load balancing traffic to the 172.16.3.0 network across its serial interfaces.
all interfaces shown on Router3 are in the passive state and will not send EIGRP advertisements

6. Which of the following should be considered when troubleshooting a problem with the establishment of neighbor relationships between OSPF routers? (Choose three.)
OSPF interval timers mismatch
gateway of last resort not redistributed
interface network type mismatch
no loopback interface configured
administrative distance mismatch
inconsistent authentication configuration

7. Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements are true of the routing table for Router1? (Choose three.)
The route to network 172.16.0.0 has an AD of 156160.
Network 192.168.0.16 can best be reached using FastEthernet0/0.
The AD of EIGRP routes has been manually changed to a value other than the default value.
Router1 is running both the EIGRP and OSPF routing process.
Network 172.17.0.0 can only be reached using a default route.
No default route has been configured.

8. Refer to the exhibit. The ORL router is unable to form a neighbor relationship with the JAX router. What is a possible cause of this problem?
Router JAX has the wrong autonomous-system number.
The command network 192.168.2.0 is missing from the EIGRP configuration on the JAX router.
Automatic summarization is not disabled on the JAX router.
Router JAX has the wrong IP address on the Fa0/1 interface.

9. Which statement is true regarding routing metrics?
All routing protocols use the same metrics.
EIGRP uses bandwidth as its only metric.
Routers compare metrics to determine the best route.
The larger metric generally represents the better path.

10. Which three statements are true of holddown timers? (Choose three.)
used by link state routing protocols to prevent routing loops
prevent update messages from reinstating a route that may have gone bad
allow routers to still forward packets to destination networks that are in holddown
limit the number of hops a packet can traverse through the network before it is discarded
prevent a router advertising a network through the same interface from which the network was learned
permit lower metric updates received from any neighboring router to reinstate the route to a possibly down network

1. A router has learned about a network through static and dynamic routing processes. Which route will be used to reach network 192.168.168.0?
D 192.168.168.0/24 [90/2195456] via 192.168.200.1, 00:00:09, Ethernet0
O 192.168.168.0/24 [110/1012] via 192.168.200.1, 00:00:22, Ethernet0
R 192.168.168.0/24 [120/1] via 192.168.200.1, 00:00:17, Ethernet0
S 192.168.168.0/24 [1/0] via 192.168.200.1

12. The Suffolk router is directly connected to the networks shown in the graphic and has a default route that points to the Richmond router. All interfaces are active and properly addressed. However, when the workstation on network 172.29.5.0/24 sends a packet to destination address 172.29.198.5, it is discarded by the Suffolk router. What can be a reason for this result?
The ip classless command is not enabled on the Richmond router.
The route was ignored if the Richmond router did not include the 172.29.198.0/24 network in its routing updates.
The Richmond router is in a different autonomous system than the Suffolk router.
The ip subnet-zero command was not configured on the Suffolk router.
The ip classless command is not enabled on the Suffolk router.

13. Which three statements are true regarding the encapsulation and de-encapsulation of packets when traveling through a router? (Choose three.)
The router modifies the TTL field, decrementing it by one.
The router changes the source IP to the IP of the exit interface.
The router maintains the same source and destination IP.
The router changes the source physical address to the physical address of the exit interface.
The router changes the destination IP to the IP of the exit interface.
The router sends the packet out all other interfaces, besides the one it entered the router on.

14. Which of the following are required when adding a network to the OSPF routing process configuration? (Choose three.)
network address
loopback address
autonomous system number
subnet mask
wildcard mask
area ID

15. Refer to the exhibit. The routers in the exhibit are running the EIGRP routing protocol. What statement is true regarding how packets will travel from the 172.16.1.0/16 network to the 192.168.200.0/24 network?
The router chooses the first path that it learned and installs only that route in the routing table.
The router chooses the path with the lowest administrative distance and installs only that route in the routing table.
The router chooses the highest routing ID based on the advertised network IP addresses and installs only that route in the routing table.
The router installs all the equal cost paths in the routing table but sends packets out only one, holding the others in reserve in case the primary route goes down.
The router installs all the equal cost paths in the routing table and performs equal cost load balancing to send packets out multiple exit interfaces.

16. Which of the following could describe the devices labeled "?" in the graphic? (Choose three.)
DCE
CSU/DSU
LAN switch
Modem
hub

17. Which three statements describe the operation of routing with EIGRP? (Choose three.)
As new neighbors are discovered, entries are placed in a neighbor table.
If the feasible successor has a higher advertised cost than the current successor route, then it becomes the primary route.
If hello packets are not received within the hold time, DUAL must recalculate the topology.
The reported distance is the distance to a destination as advertised by a neighbor.
EIGRP maintains full knowledge of the network topology in the topology table and exchanges full routing information with neighboring routers in every update.
EIGRP builds one routing table that contains routes for all configured routed protocols.

18. The network shown in the diagram is having problems routing traffic. It is suspected that the problem is with the addressing scheme. What is the problem with the addressing used in the topology?
The address assigned to the Ethernet0 interface of Router1 is a broadcast address for that subnetwork.
The subnetwork configured on the serial link between Router1 and Router2 overlaps with the subnetwork assigned to Ethernet0 of Router3.
The subnetwork assigned to the Serial0 interface of Router1 is on a different subnetwork from the address for Serial0 of Router2.
The subnetwork assigned to Ethernet0 of Router2 overlaps with the subnetwork assigned to Ethernet0 of Router3.

19. Refer to the exhibit. Packets destined to which two networks will require the router to perform a recursive lookup? (Choose two.)
10.0.0.0/8
64.100.0.0/16
128.107.0.0/16
172.16.40.0/24
192.168.1.0/24
192.168.2.0/24

20. Refer to exhibit. A company network engineer enters the following commands in the routers:R1(config)# ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.2R2(config)# ip route 10.1.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.1When the engineer enters the show ip route command on R1, the routing table does not display the static route to the 10.1.1.0 network. All R1 and R2 interfaces are correctly addressed per the graphic. What is a logical next step that the engineer could take in order to make the static route display in the routing table in R1?
Enter default routes in R1 and R2.
Enable the R1 and R2 serial interfaces.
Configure the static route to use an exit interface instead of a next-hop address.
Enter the copy run start command to force the router to recognize the configuration.

21. When the show cdp neighbors command is issued from Router C, which devices will be displayed in the output?
D, SWH-2
A, B, D
SWH-1, SWH-2
B, D
SWH-1, A, B
A, B, D, SWH-1, SWH-2

22. Refer to the exhibit. R1 knows two routes, Path A and Path B, to the Ethernet network attached to R3. R1 learned Path A to network 10.2.0.0/16 from a static route and Path B to network 10.2.0.0/16 from EIGRP. Which route will R1 install in its routing table?
Both routes are installed and load balancing occurs across both paths.
The route via Path B is installed because the EIGRP route has the best metric to network 10.2.0.0/16.
The route via Path A is installed because the static route has the best metric to network 10.2.0.0/16.
The route via Path B is installed because the EIGRP route has the lowest administrative distance to network 10.2.0.0/16.
The route via Path A is installed because the static route has the lowest administrative distance to network 10.2.0.0/16.

23. A network administrator has enabled RIP on routers B and C in the network diagram. Which of the following commands will prevent RIP updates from being sent to Router A?
A(config)# router rip

A(config-router)# passive-interface S0/0
B(config)# router rip

B(config-router)# network 192.168.25.48

B(config-router)# network 192.168.25.64
A(config)# router rip

A(config-router)# no network 192.168.25.32
B(config)# router rip

B(config-router)# passive-interface S0/0
A(config)# no router rip

24. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is testing network connectivity by issuing the tracert command from host A to host B. Given the exhibited output on host A, what are two possible routing table issues on the network? (Choose two.)
Router1 is missing a route to the 172.16.0.0 network
Router1 is missing a route to the 192.168.1.0 network
Router2 is missing a route to the 10.0.0.0 network
Router2 is missing a route to the 172.16.0.0 network
Router3 is missing a route to the 10.0.0.0 network
Router3 is missing a route to the 192.168.0.0 network

25. Refer to the exhibit. What will happen if interface Serial0/0/1 goes down on Router1?
The Dijkstra algorithm will calculate the feasible successor.
DUAL will query neighbors for a route to network 192.168.1.0.
Neighbor 172.16.3.2 will be promoted to the feasible successor.
Traffic destined to the 192.168.1.0 network will be dropped immediately due to lack of a feasible successor.

26. Refer to the exhibit. Pings are failing between HostA and HostB. The network administrator discovers that Router1 does not have a route to the 172.16.0.0 network. Assuming Router2 is configured correctly, which two static routes could be configured on Router1 to enable Host A to reach network 172.16.0.0? (Choose two.)
ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 S0/0
ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 S0/1
ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 192.168.0.1
ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 192.168.0.2
ip route 192.168.0.1 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 S0/0
ip route 192.168.0.1 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 S0/1

27. Refer to the exhibit. The results of the show ip route command are displayed in the graphic for Router R2. Which route will be selected for a packet with a destination address of 10.1.4.1?
static route to 10.1.0.0/22
RIP route to 10.1.0.0/23
RIP route to 10.1.0.0/24
0.0.0.0/0 via 192.168.0.1

28. Refer to the exhibit. The network is running the RIP routing protocol. Network 10.0.0.0 goes down. Which statement is true regarding how the routers in this topology will respond to this event?
Router4 will learn about the failed route 30 seconds later in the next periodic update.
Split horizon will prevent Router4 from fowarding packets to the 10.0.0.0 network until the holddown timer expires.
Router5 immediately flushes the unreachable route from its routing table.
Router5 will send Router4 a triggered update with a metric of 16 for network 10.0.0.0.

29. Refer to the exhibit. When troubleshooting a network, it is important to interpret the output of various router commands. On the basis of the exhibit, which three statements are true? (Choose three.)
The missing information for Blank 1 is the command show ip route.
The missing information for Blank 1 is the command debug ip route.
The missing information for Blank 2 is the number 100.
The missing information for Blank 2 is the number 120.
The missing information for Blank 3 is the letter R.
The missing information for Blank 3 is the letter C.

30. A network administrator has configured a default route on Router_A but it is not being shared with adjacent Router_B and the other routers in the OSPF area. Which command will save the administrator the time and trouble of configuring this default route on Router_B and all of the other routers in the OSPF area?
Router_A(config-router)# ospf redistribute default-route
Router_B(config-router)# ospf redistribute default-route
Router_A(config-router)# default-information originate
Router_B(config-router)# default-information originate
Router_A(config-router)# ip ospf update-default
Router_B(config-router)# ip ospf update-default

31. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator issues the command no ip classless on Router1. What forwarding action will take place on a packet that is received by Router1 and is destined for host 192.168.0.26?
The packet will be dropped.
The packet will be forwarded to the gateway of last resort.
The packet will match the 192.168.0.0 network and be forwarded out Serial 0/0.
The packet will most closely match the 192.168.0.8 subnet and be forwarded out Serial 0/1.

32. Refer to the exhibit. A packet enters Router1 with a destination IP of 172.16.28.121. Which routing table entry will be used to forward this packet to the destination address?
172.16.0.0/16 [1/0] via 192.168.0.1
172.16.0.0/20 [1/0] via 192.168.0.9
172.16.16.0/20 [1/0] via 192.168.0.17
0.0.0.0/0 is directly connected, Serial0/0/1

33. The network administrator configures the router with the ip route 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.2.2 command. How will this route appear in the routing table?
C 172.16.1.0 is directly connected, Serial0/0
S 172.16.1.0 is directly connected, Serial0/0
C 172.16.1.0 [1/0] via 172.16.2.2
S 172.16.1.0 [1/0] via 172.16.2.2

34. Using default settings, what is the next step in the router boot sequence after the IOS loads from flash?
Perform the POST routine.
Search for a backup IOS in ROM.
Load the bootstrap program from ROM.
Load the running-config file from RAM.
Locate and load the startup-config file from NVRAM.

35. What does RIP use to reduce convergence time in a larger network?
It reduces the update timer to 15 seconds if there are more then 10 routes.
It uses triggered updates to announce network changes if they happen in between the periodic updates.
It uses random pings to detect if a pathway is down and therefore is preemptive on finding networks that are down.
It uses multicast instead of broadcast to send routing updates.

36. Refer to the exhibit. What are the effects of the exhibited commands on the router?
All passwords are encrypted.
Only Telnet sessions are encrypted.
Only the enable password is encrypted.
Only the enable password and Telnet session are encrypted.
Enable and console passwords are encrypted.

37. Refer to the exhibit. What is the most efficient summarization of the routes attached to router R1?
198.18.0.0/16
198.18.48.0/21
198.18.32.0/22
198.18.48.0/23
198.18.49.0/23
198.18.52.0/22

38. Refer to the exhibit. All router interfaces are configured with an IP address and are operational. If no routing protocols or static routes are configured, what information will be included in the show ip route command output for router A?
All of the 192.168.x.0 networks will be in the routing table.
Routes to networks 192.168.1.0/24, 192.168.2.0/24, and 192.168.3.0/24 will be in the routing table.
The routing table will be empty because routes and dynamic routes have not been configured.
A default route is automatically installed in the routing table to allow connectivity between the networks.

39. Refer to the exhibit. How many routes are both level 1 and qualify for use as an ultimate route?
1
2
3
4
5
6

40. When presented with multiple valid routes to a destination, what criteria does a router use to determine which routes to add to the routing table?
The router selects the routes with the best metric. All routes that have the same best metric are added to the routing table.
The router first selects routes with the lowest administrative distance. The resulting routes are then prioritized by metric and the routes with the best metric are added to the routing table.
The router selects the routes with the lowest administrative distance. All routes with the same lowest administrative distance are added to the routing table.
The router installs all routes in the routing table but uses the route with the best metric most when load balancing.

41. Refer to the exhibit. What summary address can Router2 advertise to Router1 to reach the three networks on Routers 3, 4, and 5 without advertising any public address space or overlapping the networks on Router1?
172.16.0.0/8
172.16.0.0/10
172.16.0.0/13
172.16.0.0/20
172.16.0.0/24

42. What is the purpose of the TTL field within an IP packet header?
clears an unreachable route from the routing table after the invalid timer expires.
prevents regular update messages from inappropriately reinstating a route that may have gone bad.
removes an unreachable route from the routing table after the flush timer expires
limits the period of time or number of hops a packet can traverse through the network before it should be discarded.
used to mark the route as unreachable in a routing update that is sent to other routers

43. Refer to the exhibit. Hosts on the BOS Fa0/0 LAN are able to ping the Fa0/1 interface on the JAX router and all interfaces on the BOS and ORL routers. Why would hosts from the 10.0.0.0/24 network not be able to ping hosts on the Fa0/0 LAN of the JAX router?
The JAX router has the wrong process ID.
The JAX router needs the network 10.0.0.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 command.
The JAX router needs the network 192.168.3.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 command.
The BOS router needs the network 192.168.3.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 command.

44. What command would the network administrator apply to a router that is running OSPF to advertise the entire range of addresses included in 172.16.0.0/19 in area 0?
R1(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
R1(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.3.255 area 0
R1(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.15.255 area 0
R1(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.31.255 area 0

45. What are two tasks that must be completed before two routers can use OSPF to form a neighbor adjacency? (Choose two.)
The routers must elect a designated router.
The routers must agree on the network type.
The routers must use the same dead interval.
The routers must exchange link state requests.
The routers must exchange database description packets.

46. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true concerning the routing configuration?
Using dynamic routing instead of static routing would have required fewer configuration steps.
The 10.1.1.0/24 and 10.1.2.0/24 routes have adjacent boudaries and should be summarized.
The static route will not work correctly.
Packets routed to the R2 ethernet interface require two routing table lookups.

47. What can be determined from the output shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.)
Annapolis is a 2611 router that is connected to the S0/0 interface of the Montgomery router.
All of the routers are connected to Montgomery through an Ethernet switch.
Montgomery has Layer 2 connectivity with Cumberland.
Layer 3 connectivity is operational for all of the devices listed in the Device ID column.
An administrator consoled into the Waldorf router can ping the Brant router.
Brant, Fisherman, and Potomac are directly connected to Montgomery.

48. What is the function of the OSPF LSU packet?
used to confirm receipt of certain types of OSPF packets
used to establish and maintain adjacency with other OSPF routers
used to request more information about any entry in the BDR
used to announce new OSPF information and to reply to certain types of requests

50. Refer to the exhibit. All routers in the network are running RIPv2 and EIGRP with default routing protocol settings and have interfaces configured with the bandwidths that are shown in the exhibit. Which protocol will be used and how will traffic between the Router1 LAN and Router5 LAN be routed through the network?
RIPv2 will load balance across both paths between Router1 and Router5.
EIGRP will load balance across both paths between Router1 and Router5.
RIPv2 traffic will use the path Router1, Router2, Router5 because it has the least hops.
EIGRP traffic will use the path Router1, Router3, Router4, Router5 because it has the best metric.

51. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is trying to figure out why BOS does not have the 10.0.0.0/24 network in its routing table. All routers are configured for OSPF in area 0. The links between the routers are operational and the administrator is able to ping between all router interfaces. What is a logical next step that the network administrator should take to troubleshoot the problem?
Reboot the routers.
Change the OSPF process ID on all of the routers to 0.
Check to see if the cable is loose between BOS and JAX.
Check to see if CDP packets are passing between the routers.
Use show and debug commands to determine if hellos are propagating.

52. Refer to the exhibit. The network is using the RIPv2 routing protocol. If network 10.0.0.0 goes down, what mechanism will prevent Router1 from advertising false routing information back to Router2?
triggered updates
poison reverse
holddown timers
split horizon

53. Which two router component and operation pair are correctly described? (Choose two.)
DRAM - loads the bootstrap
RAM - stores the operating system
Flash - executes diagnostics at bootup
NVRAM - stores the configuration file
ROM - stores the backup configuration file
POST - runs diagnostics on hardware modules

54. Which of the following are primary functions of a router? (Choose two.)
packet switching
microsegmentation
domain name resolution
path selection
flow control

55. Refer to the exhibit. Which path will traffic from the 172.16.1.0/24 network take to get to the 10.0.0.0/24 network?
ADC
ABC
It will load balance the traffic between ADC and ABC
It will send the traffic via ABC, and will use ADC as a backup path only when ABC fails.

56. Refer to the exhibit. Routers 1 and 2 are directly connected over a serial link. Pings are failing between the two routers. What change by the administrator will correct the problem?
Set the encapsulation on both routers to PPP.
Decrease the bandwidth on Serial 0/1/0 on router 2 to 1544.
Change the cable that connects the routers to a crossover cable.
Change the IP address on Serial 0/1/0 on router 2 to 192.168.0.1/30.

57. Which two statements are true regarding link-state routing protocols? (Choose two.)
They do not work well in networks that require special heirarchical designs.
They are aware of the complete network topology.
They pass their entire routing tables to their directly connected neighbors only.
They offer rapid convergence times in large networks.
They rely on decreasing hop counts to determine the best path.
They do not include subnet masks in their routing updates.

58. Which three statements about routing protocols are true? (Choose three.)
OSPF elects designated routers on multiaccess links.
RIP does not support classless routing.
EIGRP supports unequal cost load balancing.
EIGRP uses broadcast traffic to establish adjacencies with its neighbors.
RIP does not advertise a route beyond a hop count of 15.
OSPF can convergence more quickly because it can find a feasible successor in its topology table when a successor route goes down.

CCNA 2:Module 11

2008-08-11T05:21:00.000-07:00

1. Refer to the exhibit. What does the "O*E2" from the "O*E2 0.0.0.0/0 [110/1] via 192.168.1.1, 00:05:34, Serial0/0" line represent?
an external OSPF route that will not increment in cost.

2. Refer to the exhibit. What is the cost of the route to the 10.0.0.0 network?
1786

3. What three parameters must be indentical between OSPF routers in order to form an adjacency? (Choose three.)
area id
hello interval
network type

4. What does OSPF use to reduce the number of exchanges of routing information in networks where large numbers of neighbors are present? (Choose two.)
designated router
backup designated router

5. What does OSPF use to calculate the cost to a destination network?
bandwidth

6. A fully converged five router OSPF network has been running successfully for several weeks. All configurations have been saved and no static routes are used. If one router looses power and reboots, what information will be in its routing table after the configuration file is loaded but before OSPF has converged?
Routes for connected networks that are operational will be in the routing table.

7. Refer to the exhibit. Router A is correctly configured for OSPF. Which OSPF configuration statement or set of statements was entered for router B to generate the exhibited routing table?
B(config-router)# network 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.3 area 0

8. Refer to the exhibit. Which network command or set of sommands will cause OSPF to be enabled to send and receive packets for any R1 interface in the exhibited subnets?
R1(config-router)# network 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 area 0

9. Refer to the exhibit. What does the "2" stand for in the router ospf 2 statement?
The number 2 identifies this particular instance of OSPF on this router.

10. Refer to the exhibit. All routers have been configured with the interface priorities that are shown. All routers were restarted simultaneously. The results of the DR/BDR election are shown. What can be concluded about this network?
The highest router ID was most likely determined via an OSPF router-id statement or statements.

11. Refer to the exhibit. What configuration statements would give the results that are shown in the output of the show ip protocols command?
B(config)# router ospf 1
B(config-router)# router-id 192.168.1.5

12. Refer to the exhibit. How many OSPF adjacencies must be formed to build the complete topology if a DR or BDR were not elected in this OSPF network?
6

13. What is the default administrative distance for OSPF?
110

14. Refer to the exhibit. Routers A, B, C, and D are all running OSPF with default router IDs and OSPF interface priorities. Loopback interfaces are not configured and all interfaces are operational. Router D is the DR and router C is the BDR. What happens immediately after the following commands are entered on router A?
A(config)# interface fa0/0
A(config-if)# ip ospf priority 255
D will remain the DR. C will remain the BDR.

15. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are running OSPF. What cost would JAX put in its routing table for the 10.0.0.0/24 network?
1787

16. What range of networks will be advertised in the OSPF updates by the command Router1(config-router)# network 192.168.0.0 0.0.15.255 area 100?
192.168.0.0/24 through 192.168.15.0/24

17. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator wants to set the router ID of Router1 to 192.168.100.1. What steps must the administrator take to accomplish this?
nothing, the router-id of Router1 is already 192.168.100.1

18. Refer to the exhibit. When OSPF is operational in the exhibited network, what neighbor relationship is developed between Router1 and Router2?
A FULL adjacency is formed.

19. Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that the routers have default interface OSPF priorities and no configured loopback interfaces, what two roles will router B play on each network segment? (Choose two.)
DR for network 192.168.1.200
BDR for network 192.168.1.204

20. Refer to the exhibit. Router1 and Router2 are running OSPF. The show ip ospf neighbor command reveals no neighbors. What is a possible cause?
OSPF hello or dead timers do not match

21. Refer to the exhibit. Which command sequence on RouterB will redistribute a gateway of last resort to the other routers in OSPF area 0?
RouterB(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.6.6
RouterB(config)# router ospf 10
RouterB(config-router)# default-information originate

22. Refer to the exhibit. RouterA, RouterB, and RouterC in the diagram are running OSPF on their Ethernet interfaces. Router D was just added to the network. Routers are configured with the loopback interfaces (Lo 0) that are shown in the exhibit. What happens to the OSPF DR/BDR after RouterD is added to the network?
There is no change in the DR or BDR until either current DR or BDR goes down.

23. Which two statements describe the use of OSPF DR/BDR elections? (Choose two.)
Elections are required in broadcast multiaccess networks.
Elections are required in non-broadcast multiaccess networks.

24. Refer to the exhibit. The routers in the exhibit are using default OSPF configuration settings to advertise all attached networks. If all of the routers start at the same time, what will be the result of the DR and BDR elections for this single area OSPF network? (Choose three.)
Router A will be DR for 10.4.0.0/16.
HQ will be BDR for 10.4.0.0/16.
Remote will be DR for 10.5.0.0/16.

25. Refer to the exhibit. What must be received between neighbors to prevent the dead time that is shown in the exhibit from reaching zero?
hello packets

CCNA 2:Module 10

2008-08-11T05:19:00.000-07:00

Options With Highlight Colours are Correct Answer

1. Refer to the exhibit. When Router D is configured to use a link-state routing protocol and is added to the network, what is the first thing that it does to begin learning the network topology?
It learns about its directly connected networks when its interfaces reach the up state.

2. What two events will cause a link state router to send LSPs to all neighbors? (Choose two.)
whenever the network topology changes
upon initial startup of router or routing protocol

3. What is the final step in the link state routing process?
SPF computes best path to each destination network

4. What two statements correctly describe the link state routing process? (Choose two.)
each router in the area floods LSPs to all neighbors
all routers in the area have identical link state databases

5. Refer to the exhibit. What kind of information would be seen in an LSP sent from router JAX to router ATL?
cost of the link

6. What feature do modern link-state protocols provide to minimize processing and memory requirements?
splitting routing topologies into smaller areas

7. To achieve network convergence, what three steps does each link state router take? (Choose three.)
build a Link State Packet (LSP) containing the state of each directly connected link.
flood the LSP to all neighbors, who then store all LSPs received in a database.
construct a complete map of the topology and compute the best path to each destination network.

8. What speeds up convergence in a network using link-state routing?
updates triggered by network changes

9. Why is it difficult for routing loops to occur in networks that use link-state routing?
Each router builds a complete and synchronized view of the network.

10. What are some of the advantages of using a link-state routing protocol instead of a distance vector routing protocol? (Choose two.)
Routers have direct knowledge of all links in the network and how they are connected.
After the inital LSA flooding, they generally require less bandwidth to communicate changes in a topology.

11. Which algorithm is run by link-state routing protocols to calculate the shortest path to destination networks?
Dijkstra

12. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement correctly describes the path traffic would take from the 10.0.0.0/24 network to the 192.168.1.0/24 network if a link-state routing protocol was in use?
BOS -> ORL -> JAX -> ATL because this path is the lowest cost

13. Which database or table must be identical on all link-state routers within an area in order to construct an accurate SPF tree?
link-state database

14. Which two routing protocols use Dijkstra’s shortest path first algorithm? (Choose two.)
IS-IS
OSPF

15. When are link-state packets sent to neighbors?
when a link goes up or down

16. Refer to the exhibit. What does JAX do with link-state packets from ORL?
sends out the individual link-state packets out the interface connected to BOS

17. A new network administrator is given the task of selecting an appropriate dynamic routing protocol for a software development company. The company has over 100 routers, uses CIDR and VLSM, requires fast convergence, and uses both Cisco and non-Cisco equipment. Which routing protocol is appropriate for this company?
OSPF

18. What action does a link-state router take immediately upon receipt of an LSP from a neighboring router?
floods the LSP to neighbors

19. Refer to the exhibit. If all routers and interfaces are configured to use a link-state routing protocol, from which routers will router D receive hello packets?
B and C

CCNA 2:Module 9

2008-08-11T05:18:00.000-07:00

Options With Highlight Colours are Correct Answer

1. on a router running EIGRP, what database would maintain a list of feasible successors?
Topology table

2. Refer to the exhibit. This is the debug output from 2 directly connected EIGRP routers. They are not forming an adjacency. What is the cause?
Network 192.168.1.64 0.0.0.3

3. What two actions will the EIGRP DUAL FSM take if a link to a network goes down? (Choose two.)
Query neighbors for a new route
Search topology table for a feasible successor

4. Refer to the exhibit. What is indicated by the P at the beginning of the topology entry?
The route is in a stable state

5. In which of the following tables does the EIGRP DUAL algorithm store the primary route to a destination? (Choose two.)
Routing
Topology

6. What information is maintained in the EIGRP topology database for a destination route? (Choose three.)
The routing protocol
The feasible distance of the route
The route cost as advertised by the neighboring router

7. Which of the following statements describes the bounded updates used by EIGRP?
Partial updates are sent only to routers that need the information.

8. Which of the following types of routes will be denoted by EX in EIGRP routing table entries? (Choose two.)
Routes learned from other routing protocols
EIGRP routes that originate in different autonomous systems

9. Host 192.168.1.66 in the network illustrated is unable to ping host 192.168.1.130. How must EIGRP be configured to enable connectivity between the two hosts? (Choose two.)
R1 (config-router) # no auto-summary
R2 (config-router) # no auto-summary

10. Which two statements describe characteristics of EIGRP? (Choose two.)
EIGRP is a distance vector routing protocol.
EIGRP supports classless routing and VLSM.

11. Refer to the exhibit. Based on the output of show ip eigrp neighbors, what are two possible problems with adjacencies between Router1 and Router2? (Choose two.)
The routers are configured with different EIGRP process IDs.
The serial interfaces for both routers are in different networks.

12. Refer to the exhibit. In the topology table, what do the numbers 3011840 and 3128695 represent?
The total metric for that network as advertised by the EIGRP neighbor

13. Refer to the exhibit. EIGRP is the only routing protocol enabled on this network. No static routes are configured on this router. What can be concluded about network 198.18.1.0/24 from the exhibited output?
Packets that are destined for 198.18.1.0/24 will be forwarded to 198.18.10.6.

14. Refer to the exhibit. All interfaces have been configured with the bandwidths that are shown in the exhibit. Assuming that all routers are using a default configuration of EIGRP as their routing protocol, what path will packets take from the 172.16.1.0/16 network to the 192.168.200.0/24 network?
A, B, E

15. by default, which two metrics are used by EIGRP to determine the best path between networks?
Delay
Bandwidth

16. Which term defines a collection of networks under the administrative control of a single entity that presents a common routing policy to the Internet?
Autonomous system

17. Refer to the exhibit. The company is using EIGRP with an autonomous system number of 10. Pings between hosts on networks that are connected to router A and those that are connected to router B are successful. However, users on the 192.168.3.0 network are unable to reach users on the 192.168.1.32 network. What is the most likely cause of this problem?
The routers are not configured in the same EIGRP routing domain.

18. in the command router eigrp 20, what is the purpose of the number 20?
Identifies the autonomous system number this EIGRP process will advertise

19. The show ip eigrp topology command output on a router displays a successor route and a feasible successor route to network 192.168.1.0/24. In order to reduce processor utilization, what does EIGRP do when the primary route to this network fails?
The backup route to network 192.168.1.0/24 is installed in the routing table.

20. What administrative distance would a router assign to a default route in EIGRP that is learned from a source external to the autonomous system?
170

21. Refer to the exhibit. Network 192.168.0.0/28 goes down. What type of packet does Router2 immediately send to Router1 and Router3?
unicast update packets to 192.168.1.1 and 192.168.2.1

CCNA 2:Module 8

2008-08-11T05:12:00.000-07:00

Options With Highlight Colours are Correct Answer

1. Refer to the exhibit. What can be determined from this output?
All of the routes listed are network routes.

2. Refer to the exhibit. A packet destined for host 128.107.0.5/16 is processed by the JAX router. After finding the static route in the routing table that matches the destination network for this packet, what does the router do next?
performs a recursive lookup to find the exit interface used to forward the packet

3. Refer to the exhibit. What parent network will automatically be included in the routing table when the three subnets are configured on Router1?
172.16.0.0/16

4. The following entry is displayed in the routing table: R 192.168.8.0/24 [120/2] via 192.168.4.1, 00:00:26, Serial0/0/1 What type of route is this?
a level 1 ultimate network route

5. Refer to the exhibit. Router1 is running IOS version 12.2. What will the network administrator need to do so that packets for unknown child routes of 172.16.0.0/24 will not be dropped?
do nothing, ip classless is on by default

6. Refer to the exhibit. Router B receives a packet with a destination address of 10.16.1.97. What will router B do?
use the default route

7. Refer to the exhibit. How many routes in this output qualify for use as ultimate routes?
7

8. Refer to the exhibit. With the ip classless command issued, what will router R2 do with a packet destined for host 172.16.4.234?
send packet out Serial 0/0/1

9. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement correctly describes this network?
There is at least one parent and one child route

10. Refer to the exhibit. Router1 has been issued the ip classless command. What happens to packets destined to host 172.16.3.10?
forward out interface Serial0/0/1

11. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has discovered that packets destined for servers on the 172.16.254.0 network are being dropped by Router2.What command should the administrator issue to ensure that these packets are sent out the gateway of last resort, Serial 0/0/1?
ip classless

12. A router has the following entries in its routing table: S 192.168.0.0/24 [1/0] via 192.168.128.2 192.168.0.0/25 [110/2175] via 172.16.1.1, 00:02:15, FastEthernet0/1 D 192.168.0.0/25 [90/22455] via 172.16.2.2, 00:12:15, Serial0/0/0 R 192.168.0.0/26 [120/2] via 172.16.3.3, 00:00:15, Serial0/0/1 The router receives a packet that is destined for a host with the address 192.168.0.58. Which route would this router use to forward the packet?
the RIP route

13. What determines if the router implements a classless route lookup process?
Multiple routes with different masks to the same destination are in the routing table.

14. What occurs when no ip classless is implemented on the router?
The router will assume it has knowledge of all subnets in the network and will not search beyond child routes for a better match.

15. Refer to the exhibit. The graphic contains partial contents of the routing table on router E. Router E is running version 12.3 of the IOS and is configured for default routing behavior. Router E receives a packet to forward. Which route in the routing table will be searched first and why?
172.16.0.0/25 because it is the first level 1 route

16. A network is converged and the routing tables are complete. When a packet needs to be forwarded, what is the first criterion used to determine the best path in the routing table?
the route with the longest address and mask match to the destination

17. Refer to the exhibit. What subnet mask will Router1 apply to child routes of the 172.16.0.0/24 network?
255.255.255.0

18. Refer to the exhibit. What protocol was used to distribute the routing information for the network 172.16.1.4?
RIPv2

19. A route to a destination network is learned from multiple routing protocols. What is used by a Cisco router to select the preferred route to the destination that will be installed in the routing table?
administrative distance

CCNA 2:Module 7

2008-08-11T05:11:00.000-07:00

Options With Highlight Colours are Correct Answer

1. Refer to the exhibit. If all routers are running RIP version 2, why is there no route for the 192.168.1.32/27 network?
Rip version 2 will auto summarize routes by default.

2. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
Router1 will install a route to 192.168.0.0/20
Router2 will not install a route to 192.168.16.0/20

3. Refer to the exhibit. Which command on which router will allow Router1 to learn about the 192.168.0.0/20 network?
Router2(config-router)# version 2

4. What are two reasons to implement RIP version 2 rather than RIP version 1? (Choose two.)
RIP version 2 supports VLSM.
RIP version 2 supports routing update authentication.

5. How are RIP v1 and RIP v2 similar to one another? (Choose three.)
They both use hop count as a metric.
They both have the same metric value for infinite distance.
They both use split horizon to prevent routing loops.

6. Refer to the exhibit. Routers East and West are configured using RIPv1. Both routers are sending updates about their directly connected routes. The East router can ping the West router serial interface and West can ping the serial interface of East. However, neither router has dynamically learned routes from the other. What is most likely the problem?
VLSM is not supported by RIPv1.

7. Refer to the exhibit. Which command will allow Router2 to learn about the 192.168.16.0/28 network?
Router1(config-router)# network 192.168.16.0

8. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are running RIP version 2. JAX is configured to just advertise the 10.0.0.0/24 network. CHI is configured to advertise the 172.16.0.0/16 network. A network administrator enters the commands shown in the exhibit. What changes will occur in
this network?
The CHI router will install a route to the 192.168.0.0/16 network in its routing table.

9. Refer to the exhibit. A technician needs to add a new loopback interface to test routing functionality and network design. The technician enters the following set of commands on the router:
Sanford(config)# interface loopback1
Sanford(config-if)# ip address 192.168.6.62 255.255.255.252

10. Why does the router respond with an error?
The network address for Loopback1 overlaps with an already configured interface address.
11. What is the maximum network diameter permitted by the default metric of RIPv2?
15 hops

12. What are two functions of the network command used when configuring routing protocols? (Choose two.)
identifies which networks will be included in the routing updates
determines which interfaces can send and receive routing updates

13. Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded from the output shown in the exhibit?
The no auto-summary has not been configured on this router.

14. A network administrator has been told that the company IP address infrastructure must adhere to RFC 1918. What three IP address ranges from RFC 1918 could the administrator use on the network? (Choose three.)
10.0.0.0/8
172.16.0.0/12
192.168.0.0/16

15. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are running RIPv1. What changes will occur in the routing table of router B if a loopback interface with an address of 10.16.1.129/27 is configured on router B?
A connected route to the 10.16.1.128/27 network is added.

16. A network administrator installed four new routers that are running RIPv2. Router1 is a boundary router in the RIPv2 network and has a default route configured. Once the network has converged, the network administrator enters Router1(config-router)# defaultinformation
originate on Router1. How will this affect the network?
propagates the default route to all routers in the network

17. Refer to the exhibit. The exhibited network contains a mixture of Cisco and non-Cisco routers. The command debug ip rip was entered on the JAX router. All routers are running the same version of RIP. Router CHI and Router ORL are not able to reach the 192.168.1.16/28 network. What is a possible solution to this problem?
Configure RIPv2 on routers.

18. What field was added to the RIP message header by RFC 1723 to add support for VLSM and CIDR?
subnet mask

19. Refer to the exhibit. What effect will the commands that are shown have on RIP updates for Router1?
Only version 2 updates are sent to 224.0.0.9.

20. Refer to the exhibit. RIPv1 is configured as the routing protocol for the network that is shown. The following commands are used on each router:
router rip
network 10.0.0.0
network 172.16.0.0

21. When this configuration is complete, users on the LAN of each router are unable to access the remote LANs. Why?
RIPv1 is unable to route to discontiguous subnets of a major network.

22. RIPv2 is the configured routing protocol on the routers in a network. The command Router(config-router)# no version 2 is entered on the routers. What effect does entering this command have on routing updates?
Version 1 and 2 updates will be received and the version 2 updates will not be sent.

CCNA 2:Module 6

2008-08-11T05:09:00.000-07:00

Options With Highlight Colours are Correct Answer

1. What two advantages does CIDR provide to a network? (Choose two.)
reduced routing table size
reduced routing update traffic

2. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator wants to create a subnet for the point-to-point connection between the two routers. Which subnetwork mask would provide enough addresses for the point-to-point link with the least number of wasted addresses?
255.255.255.252

3. Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is summarizing the two groups of routes on router R1 shown in the exhibit. Which summarization will work for all the subnets?
192.168.0.0/21

4. Which of the following are contained in the routing updates of classless routing
Protocols? (Choose two.)
32-bit address
subnet mask

5. Which of the following problems does VLSM help to alleviate?
the shortage of IP addresses

6. What does VLSM allow a network administrator to do?
utilize multiple subnet masks in the same IP address space

7. Refer to the exhibit. What subnet mask will be applied if Router A sends a RIPv1 update for the network 172.16.1.0 to Router B?
24

8. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator wants to minimize the number of entries in Router1’s routing table. What should the administrator implement on the network?
CIDR

9. A router has a summary route to network 192.168.32.0/20 installed in its routing table. What range of networks are summarized by this route?
192.168.32.0 – 192.168.47.0/24

10. A network administrator is tasked with dividing up a class C network among the QA, Sales, and Administration departments. The QA department is made up of 10 people, the Sales is made up of 28 people, and the Administration has 6. Which two subnets masks adequately address the QA and Sales departments? (Choose two.)
255.255.255.224 for Sales
255.255.255.240 for QA

11. In the network shown in the graphic, three bits were borrowed from the host portion of a Class C address. How many valid host addresses will be unused on the three point-to-point links combined if VLSM is not used?
84

12. A Class C address has been assigned for use in the network shown in the graphic. Using VLSM, which bit mask should be used to provide for the number of host addresses required on Router A, while wasting the fewest addresses?
/27

13. An additional subnet is required for a new Ethernet link between Router1 and Router2 as shown in the diagram. Which of the following subnet addresses can be configured in this network to provide a maximum of 14 useable addresses for this link while wasting the fewest addresses?
192.1.1.224/28

14. Which three interior routing protocols support VLSM? (Choose three.)
OSPF
RIP v2
EIGRP

15. Refer to the exhibit. The number of required host addresses for each subnet in a network is listed in the exhibit. This number includes the host address requirements for all router ports and hosts on that subnet. After all device and router port address assignments are determined, what will be the total number of unused host addresses available?
29

16. Refer to the exhibit. In the network that is shown, the router interfaces are assigned the first address in each subnet. Which IP address would be usable for a host on one of the LANs in this network?
192.168.2.130/25

17. Refer to the exhibit. Which address is a broadcast address for one of the subnets that are shown in the exhibit?
192.168.4.15/29

18. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator needs to create two subnetworks from 10.0.0.0/8 for a router running RIPv2. The Admin subnet requires 120 hosts and the Sales subnet requires 58 hosts. The network administrator assigned 10.0.1.128/25 to the Admin subnet. The Sales subnet is given 10.0.1.192/26. What will be the result of this addressing scheme?
Because RIPv2 does not support VLSM, the subnet masks will not be allowed.
The subnets overlap and will be rejected by the router.

19. Refer to the exhibit. A network technician enters the static route in R1 needed to reach network 10.1.1.0/24. A ping from the S0/0/0 interface on R1 to host B fails. The technician begins testing the network and has the following results:
pings from R1 to the S0/0/0 interface on R2....successful
pings from R1 to the Fa0/0 interface on R2....successful
pings from host B to hosts on the 10.1.1.0/24 network....successful
pings from host B to the Fa0/0 interface on R2....successful
pings from R2 to host B....successful.
The default gateway on host B is not correctly set.

20. What is a supernet?
a summarization of classful addresses

CCNA 2:Module 5

2008-08-11T05:08:00.000-07:00

Options With Highlight Colours are Correct Answer

1. Refer to the exhibit. The network that is shown is running RIPv1. The 192.168.10.0/24 network was recently added and will only contain end users. What command or set of commands should be entered on Router1 to prevent RIPv1 updates from being sent to the end user devices on the new network while still allowing this new network to be advertised to other routers?
Router1(config-router)# no network 192.168.10.0

2. The following line was displayed in the output of the show ip route command.
R 192.168.3.0/24 [120/3] via 192.168.2.2, 00:00:30, Serial0/0
What is the value of the routing metric?
3

3. Which of the following is considered a limitation of RIP v1?
RIP v1 does not send subnet mask information in its updates.

4. Refer to the exhibit. The Ethernet interface on Router2 goes down and the administrator notices that the route is still in the Router1 routing table. How much longer will Router1 keep the down network in its routing table before marking it as possibly down?
155 seconds

5. Refer to the exhibit. Router1 is running RIPv1. What command was entered into Router1 to configure the gateway of last resort?
ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 S0/0/1

6. What are three characteristics of the RIPv1 routing protocol? (Choose three.)
uses hop count as a metric
considers a metric of 16 as infinity
calculates metrics using the Bellman Ford algorithm

7. Which of the following would be the correct command sequence to enable RIP on Router B for all connected networks?
RouterB(config)# router rip
RouterB(config-router)# network 198.16.4.0
RouterB(config-router)# network 210.36.7.0
RouterB(config-router)# network 220.17.29.0

8. What is the default update period in seconds for the RIP routing protocol?
30

9. Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded from the routing table output of router B?
The default-information originate command has been entered on A.

10. Refer to the exhibit. A network consists of multiple routers. What can be verified when the show ip protocols command is issued on one of the routers in the network?
routing protocol configuration in use for IP on this router

11. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are configured with valid interface addresses in the indicated networks and are running RIPv1. The network is converged. Which routes are present in the routing tables?
All routers have all /30 routes. Routers A and E also have some of the /24 routes in their routing table.

12. Which two statements are true regarding the characteristics of RIPv1? (Choose two).
It is a distance vector routing protocol.
The data portion of a RIP message is encapsulated into a UDP segment.

13. Which command or set of commands will stop the RIP routing process?
RouterB(config)# no router rip

14. Refer to the exhibit. All routers in the exhibit are running RIP v1. The network administrator issues the show ip route command on router A. What routes would appear in the routing table output if the network is converged? (Choose two).
R 192.168.2.0/24 [120/1]
R 10.10.1.0/24 [120/2]

15. Which command will display RIP activity as it occurs on a router
debug ip rip

16. Refer to the output from the show ip route command. What can be concluded from the output of this router command?
There are two equal cost paths to network 1.0.0.0.

17. Refer to the exhibit. Router1 and Router2 are running the RIPv1 protocol. The network administrator configures the command network 10.1.0.0 on Router1. What network will Router1 advertise to Router2?
10.0.0.0/8

18. Refer to the exhibit. Pings between the serial interfaces of the routers are successful. Hosts on each LAN can ping the Fa0/0 interface of the router to which they are directly connected through the switch. However, pings between hosts on the 10.1.1.0/24 and 10.1.2.0/24 networks are unsuccessful. What is a likely cause of this problem?
RIP is configured incorrectly on R1.

19. What will happen if an interface IP address is entered for the address portion of the network command in a RIPv1 configuration instead of a network address?
All interfaces in the same classful network as the configured address will be included in the RIPv1 routing process.

20. Refer to the exhibit. All routers that are shown are running the RIP routing protocol. All unknown IP traffic must be forwarded to the ISP. What router or set of routers are recommended to have both a default route and the default-information originate command issued to implement this forwarding policy?
only the gateway router

CCNA 2:Module 4

2008-08-11T04:29:00.000-07:00

Options With Highlight Colours are Correct Answer

1. Which event will cause a triggered update?
a route is installed in the routing table

2. Three routers running a distance-vector routing protocol lost all power, including the battery backups. When the routers reload, what will happen?
They will send updates that include only directly connected routes to their directly connected neighbors.

3. What does the RIP holddown timer do?
instructs routers to ignore updates, for a specified time or event, about possible inaccessible routes

4. Which two statements are true regarding the function of the RIPv1 routing updates? (Choose two).
updates are broadcast at regular intervals
broadcasts are sent to 255.255.255.255

5. Which of the following statements are correct about RIP?
will send out an update if there is a failure of a link

6. Which two statements describe EIGRP? (Choose two.)
EIGRP sends triggered updates whenever there is a change in topology that influences the routing information.
EIGRP sends a partial routing table update, which includes just routes that have been changed.

7. Which statement is true regarding cisco’s RIP_JITTER variable?
It prevents the synchronization of routing updates by subtracting a random length of time ranging from 0% to 15% of the specified interval time from the next routing update interval.

8. What actions will occur after RouterA loses connectivity to network 114.125.16.0? (Choose two.)
RouterB will include network 123.92.76.0 and 136.125.85.0 in its update to RouterA.
Router C will learn of the loss of connectivity to network 114.125.16.0 from RouterB.

9. Which of the following methods does split horizon use to reduce incorrect routing information?
Information learned from one source is not distributed back to that source.

10. The graphic shows a network that is configured to use RIP routing protocol. Router2 detects that the link to Router1 has gone down. It then advertises the network for this link with a hop count metric of 16. Which routing loop prevention mechanism is in effect?
route poisoning

11. What is the purpose of the TTL field in the IP header?
limits the time or hops that a packet can traverse through the network before it should be discarded

12. Which of the following can exist in a distance vector network that has not converged? (Choose three.)
routing loops
inconsistent traffic forwarding
inconsistent routing table entries

13. Refer to the exhibit. The routers in this network are running RIP. Router A has not received an update from Router B in over three minutes. How will Router A respond?
The Invalid timer will mark the route as unusable if an update has not been received in 180 seconds.

14. A network administrator is evaluating RIP versus EIGRP for a new network. The network will be sensitive to congestion and must respond quickly to topology changes. What are two good reasons to choose EIGRP instead of RIP in this case? (Choose two.)
EIGRP only updates affected neighbors.
EIGRP updates are partial.

15. Refer to the exhibit. What path will packets from the 192.168.1.0/24 network travel to reach the 10.0.0.0/8 network if RIP is the active routing protocol?
The path will be router A -> router D -> router E.

16. Which three routing protocols are distance vector routing protocols? (Choose three).
RIPv1
EIGRP
RIPv2

17. What is a routing loop?
a condition where a packet is constantly transmitted within a series of routers without ever reaching its intended destination

18. Which two conditions are most likely to cause a routing loop? (Choose two.)
inconsistent routing tables
incorrectly configured static routes

19. What metric does the RIP routing protocol consider to be infinity?
16

20. What does a router running RIP do first with a new route that is received from an advertisement?
adjusts the metric for the new route to show the added distance for the route

21. Refer to the exhibit. If all routers are using RIP, how many rounds of updates will occur before all routers know all networks?
3

CCNA 2:Module 3

2008-08-11T04:27:00.000-07:00

Options With Highlight Colours are Correct Answer

1. Which two statements correctly describe the concepts of administrative distance and metric? (Choose two.)
Administrative distance refers to the trustworthiness of a particular route.
Routes with the smallest metric to a destination indicate the best path.

2. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement correctly describes how R1 will determine the best path to R2?
R1 will install an EIGRP route using network B in its routing table because the administrative distance of EIGRP is lower than RIP.

3. Which two statements are true regarding classless routing protocols? (Choose two.)
sends subnet mask information in routing updates
allows for use of both 192.168.1.0/30 and 192.168.1.16/28 subnets in the same topology

4. Which command would the network administrator issue to determine if load balancing is in effect on a router?
show ip route

5. Which statement is true regarding routing protocols?
EIGRP uses DUAL to calculate the shortest path and can be configured to do unequal cost load balancing.

6. Which two conditions would create a setting where the use of a distance-vector routing protocol would be efficient? (Choose two.)
the network is using a hub and spoke topology
the network is using a flat design

7. What is the purpose of a routing protocol?
It allows a router to share information about known networks with other routers.

8. Which of the following best describes the operation of distance vector routing protocols?
They send their routing tables to directly connected neighbors.

9. Which of the following is associated with link-state routing protocols?
shortest-path first calculations

10. Why is fast convergence desirable in networks that use dynamic routing protocols?
Routers may make incorrect forwarding decisions until the network has converged.

11. Which of the following conditions must be met in order for a network to have converged
The routers in the network are operating with consistent routing knowledge.

12. Which two statements are true regarding metrics? (Choose two.)
EIGRP uses bandwidth as a metric.
OSPF uses cost based on bandwidth as a metric.

13. Which two statements are true regarding the advantages of the use of static routes? (Choose two).
increased security
the administrator maintains control over routing

14. The following line of code is displayed in a routing table:
R 209.165.201.0/24 [120/2] via 192.168.252.2, 00:00:16, S0/0/0
What can be concluded from this output?
The value, 120, is used to determine the best path when a router has more than one routing protocol configured for the same destination network.

15. What will be the result of the following commands?
ORL(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0
ORL(config-if)# ip address 172.16.3.1 255.255.255.0
ORL(config-if)# no shutdown
A routing table entry is made to the 172.16.3.0 network with a code of "C".

16. An engineer creates a static route by entering the Router(config)# ip route 10.0.0.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.1.2 command. What can be concluded about this route?
The administrative distance of this route is 1.

17. Refer to the exhibit. Router1 and Router2 are running EIGRP. All interfaces are operational and packets can be forwarded between all networks. What information will be found in the routing table for Router1?
The administrative distance of the route to network 172.16.0.0 will be 90.

18. The following line of code is present in the routing table:
10.16.1.0/27 [110/129] via 192.168.1.5, 00:00:05, Serial0/0/1
What does the number 129 indicate in this output?
The cost for this link has a value of 129.

19. A growing medium-sized manufacturing company recently began to have routing instability issues. The company uses static routes and has a mixture of over 30 Cisco and non-Cisco routers. The network administrator has decided to convert the network to dynamic routing. What characteristics of protocols should be considered in this selection process?
OSPF can be used between the routers.

20. Refer to the exhibit. If RIP is the routing protocol, what is the value of the metric from router A to network 192.168.5.0/24?
3

21. A router learns two paths with equal metrics to a destination network via the RIP routing protocol. How will the router handle packets to the destination network?
The router will install both routes in the routing table and load balance between the two.

CCNA 2:Module 2

2008-08-11T04:26:00.000-07:00

Options With Highlight Colours are Correct Answer

1. Which of the following are displayed by the Router# show cdp neighbors command? (Choose three.)
platform
holdtime
local interface

2. Why is it advisable to enter a next-hop IP address when creating a static route whose exit interface is an Ethernet network?
In a multi-access network, the router cannot determine the next-hop MAC address for the Ethernet frame without a next-hop address.

3. The output of the Router# show interfaces serial 0/1 command displays the following:
Serial0/1 is up, line protocol is down.

4. What is the most likely cause for the line protocol being down?
No clock rate has been set.

5. A static route that points to the next hop IP will have what administrative distance and metric in the routing table?
administrative distance of 1 and metric of 0

6. Refer to the exhibit. What two commands will change the next-hop address for the 10.0.0.0/8 network from 172.16.40.2 to 192.168.1.2? (Choose two.)
A(config)# no ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 172.16.40.2
A(config)# ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 192.168.1.2

7. Refer to the exhibit. A company network engineer is assigned to establish connectivity between the two Ethernet networks so that hosts on the 10.1.1.0/24 subnet can contact hosts on the 10.1.2.0/24 subnet. The engineer has been told to use only static routing for these company routers. Which set of commands will establish connectivity between the two Ethernet networks?
R1(config)# ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.2R2(config)# ip route 10.1.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.1

8. Refer to the exhibit. Which static route should be configured on Router1 so that host A will be able to reach host B on the 172.16.0.0 network?
ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 S0/0/0

9. What address can be used to summarize networks 172.16.1.0/24, 172.16.2.0/24, 172.16.3.0/24, and 172.16.4.0/24?
172.16.0.0/21

11. Refer to the exhibit. What is the significance of the /8 in the route to the 10.0.0.0 network?
It indicates the number of consecutive bits, from the left, in the destination IP address of a packet that must match 10.0.0.0 to use that route.

12. What two devices are responsible for converting the data from the WAN service provider into a form acceptable by the router? (Choose two).
a modem
a CSU/DSU device

13. A network administrator enters the following command into Router1: ip route 192.168.0.0 255.255.255.0 S0/1/0. Router1 then receives a packet that is destined for 192.168.0.22/24. After finding the recently configured static route in the routing table, what does Router1 do next to process the packet?
encapsulates the packet into a frame for the WAN link and forwards the packet out the S0/1/0 interface.

14. Which piece of information is available from examining the output of the command show ip interface brief?
Interface IP address

15. Which of the following is true regarding CDP and the graphic shown?
By default, Router A will receive CDP advertisements from routers B and C.

16. Which two statements describe functions or characteristics of CDP? (Choose two.)
It starts up automatically and allows the device to detect directly connected neighbor devices that use CDP.
It allows systems to learn about each other even if different network layer protocols are configured.

17. Hosts on two separate subnets cannot communicate. The network administrator suspects a missing route in one of the routing tables. Which three commands can be used to help troubleshoot Layer 3 connectivity issues? (Choose three.)
ping
traceroute
show ip route

18. What happens to a static route entry in a routing table when the outgoing interface is not available?
The route is removed from the table.

19. The routers in the diagram use the subnet assignments shown. What is the most efficient route summary that can be configured on Router3 to advertise the internal networks to the cloud?
192.1.1.0/25

20. Refer to the exhibit. How will packets destined to the 172.16.0.0 network be forwarded?
Router1 will perform recursive lookup and packet will exit S0/0.

21. A router has one static route to each destination network. Which two scenarios would require an administrator to alter the static routes that are configured on that router? (Choose two.)
The destination network no longer exists.
A topology change occurs where the existing next-hop address or exit interface is not accessible.

22. Refer to the exhibit. Given the output in the exhibit, how would a clock rate be determined for this link?
The rate configured on the DCE determines the clock rate.

23. Refer to the exhibit. Which set of commands will configure static routes that will allow the WinterPark and the Altamonte routers to deliver packets from each LAN and direct all other traffic to the Internet?
WinterPark(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.146.1Altamonte(config)# ip route 10.0.234.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.146.2Altamonte(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/1

24. Refer to the exhibit. What two commands are required to provide connectivity between the 192.168.1.0 and 10.0.0.0 networks without requiring recursive lookup? (Choose two.)
A(config)# ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 s 0/1/0
B(config)# ip route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 s 0/0/0

CCNA 2:Module 1

2008-08-11T04:23:00.000-07:00

Options With Highlight Colours are Correct Answer

1. If a router cannot find a valid configuration file during the startup sequence, what will occur?
The router will prompt the user for a response to enter setup mode.

2. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has configured the router with the interface IP addresses shown for the directly connected networks. Pings from the router to hosts on the connected networks or pings between router interfaces are not working. What is the most likely problem?
The interfaces must be enabled with the no shutdown command.

3. Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded from the routing table output in the exhibit? (Choose two.)
The FastEthernet0/0 and Serial0/0/0 interfaces of this router were configured with an IP address and the no shutdown command.
An IP packet received by this router with a destination address of 198.18.9.1 will be forwarded out of the Serial0/0/0 interface.

4. Refer to the exhibit. The frame shown in the exhibit was received by the router. The router interfaces are operational. How will the router process this frame? (Choose two.)
The router will change the frame type to one supported by the WAN link before forwarding the frame.
The frame was received on the Fa0/0 interface of the router and will be switched to the S0/0/0 interface.

5. Passwords can be used to restrict access to all or parts of the Cisco IOS. Select the modes and interfaces that can be protected with passwords. (Choose three.)
VTY interface
console interface
privileged EXEC mode

6. Which two statements correctly describe the components of a router? (Choose two.)
ROM contains diagnostics executed on hardware modules.
Flash memory does not lose its contents during a reboot.

7. Refer to the exhibit. After host 2 is connected to the switch on the LAN, host 2 is unable to communicate with host 1. What is the cause of this problem?
The subnet mask of host 2 is incorrect.
Host 1 and host 2 are on different networks.
The switch needs an IP address that is not configured.
The router LAN interface and host 1 are on different networks.
The IP address of host 1 is on a different network than is the LAN interface of the router.

8. Which are functions of a router? (Choose three.)
packet switching
segmentation of broadcast domains
selection of best path based on logical addressing

9. Refer to the exhibit. All routers have a route in its routing table to each network that is shown in the exhibit. Default routes have not been issued on these routers. What can be concluded about how packets are forwarded in this network? (Choose two.)
If RouterA receives a packet that is destined for 192.168.3.146, it will be forwarded out interface S0/0/1.
If RouterB receives a packet that is destined for 10.5.27.15, it will be forwarded out interface S0/0/1.

10. The serial connection shown in the graphic needs to be configured. Which configuration commands must be made on the Sydney router to establish connectivity with the Melbourne site? (Choose three.)
Sydney(config-if)# ip address 201.100.53.2 255.255.255.0
Sydney(config-if)# no shutdown
Sydney(config-if)# clock rate 56000

11. Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded from the output of the running-configuration of a router?
The commands that are displayed determine the current operation of the router.

12. Refer to the exhibit. Host A pings host B. When R4 accepts the ping into the Ethernet interface, what two pieces of header information are included? (Choose two.)
destination IP address: 192.168.10.134
destination MAC address: 9999.DADC.1234

13. What is the outcome of entering these commands?
R1(config)# line vty 0 4

R1(config-line)# password check123
R1(config-line)# login
sets the password to be used for connecting to this router via Telnet

14. Which of the following is the correct flow of routines for a router startup?
load bootstrap, load IOS, apply configuration.

15. What three processes does a router execute when it receives a packet from one network that is destined for another network? (Choose three.)
decapsulates the Layer 3 packet by stripping off the Layer 2 frame header.
uses the destination IP Address in the IP header to look up the next-hop address in the routing table.
encapsulates the Layer 3 packet into the new Layer 2 frame and forwards it out the exit interface.

16. The network administrator needs to connect two routers directly via their FastEthernet ports. What cable should the network administrator use?
cross-over

17. Which two statements describe characteristics of load balancing? (Choose two.)
Load balancing allows a router to forward packets over multiple paths to the same destination network.
Unequal cost load balancing is supported by EIGRP.

18. What information about the router and its startup process can be gathered from the output of the show version command? (Choose three.)
the last restart method
the configuration register settings
the location from where the IOS loaded

19. Which interfaces in the exhibit could be used for a leased line WAN connection? (Choose two.)
1
4

20. From what location can a router load the Cisco IOS during the boot process? (Choose two.)
TFTP server
Flash memory

21. A network administrator has just entered new configurations into Router1. Which command should be executed to save configuration changes to NVRAM?
Router1# copy running-config startup-config

22. What is the default sequence for loading the configuration file?
NVRAM, TFTP, CONSOLE

23. What header address information does a router change in the information it receives from an attached Ethernet interface before information is transmitted out another interface?
the Layer 2 source and destination address.

CCNA 1:Final

2008-08-11T04:20:00.000-07:00

Options With Highlight Colours are Correct Answer

1. Refer to the exhibit. Host B attempts to establish a TCP/IP session with host C. During this attempt, a frame was captured at the FastEthernet interface fa0/1 of the San Francisco router. The packet inside the captured frame has the source IP address 10.10.1.2, and the destination IP address is 10.31.1.20. What is the destination MAC address of the frame at the time of capture?
0060.7320.D632
0060.7320.D631
0040.8517.44C3
0009.B2E4.EE03
0010.C2B4.3421

2. What are three characteristics of CSMA/CD? (Choose three.)
It monitors the media for presence of a data signal.
After detecting a collision, hosts can resume transmission after a random timer has expired.
A jam signal is used to ensure that all hosts are aware that a collision has occurred.
Devices can be configured with a higher transmission priority.
Data is transmitted only when the data signal is present.
It uses a token system to avoid collisions.

3. Refer to the exhibit. The PC, the routing table of which is displayed, is configured correctly. To which network device or interface does the IP address 192.168.1.254 belong?
PC
switch
router interface fa0/0
router interface fa0/1

4. Refer to the exhibit. Host A wants to access the Internet. Which combination of a Layer 2 address and a Layer 3 address will enable this access from host A?
Destination MAC: 0030.8596.DE83 Default gateway: 209.165.202.130
Destination MAC: 0030.8596.DE82 Default gateway: 172.16.9.2
Destination MAC: 0030.8517.44C4 Default gateway: 172.16.1.1
Destination MAC: 0030.8517.44C4 Default gateway: 209.165.202.130

5. Refer to the exhibit. Communication between hosts X and Y is restricted to the local network. What is the reason for this?
The gateway addresses are broadcast addresses.
Host Y is assigned a multicast address.
Host X and host Y belong to different networks.
Host X is assigned a network address.

6. What is the result of using the clock rate 56000 command at the serial interface of the router?
The interface is configured as a DCE device.
The interface timers are cleared.
The FastEthernet interface is made to emulate a serial interface by assigning it a timing signal.
The IP address for the serial interface is configured.

7. Which three addresses belong to the category of public IP addresses? (Choose three.)
127.0.0.1
196.1.105.6
132.11.9.99
10.0.0.1
172.16.9.10
46.1.1.97

8. Which three statements are true about transport layer protocols? (Choose three.)
TCP and UDP manage communication between multiple applications.
TCP retransmits the packets for which the acknowledgment is not received.
TCP acknowledges received data.
UDP exchanges frames between the nodes of the network.
TCP has no mechanism to acknowledge transmission errors.
UDP uses windowing and sequencing to provide reliable transfer of data.

9. Refer to the exhibit. Which logical topology describes the exhibited network?
star
ring
point-to-point
multi-access

10. Which statement is true about the running configuration file in a Cisco IOS device?
It affects the operation of the device immediately when modified.
It is stored in NVRAM.
It should be deleted using the erase running-config command.
It is automatically saved when the router reboots.

11. Refer to the exhibit. Host C is able to ping 127.0.0.1 successfully, but is unable to communicate with hosts A and B in the organization. What is the likely cause of the problem?
Hosts A and B are not on the same subnet as host C.
The IP addresses on the router serial interfaces are wrong.
The subnet mask on host C is improperly configured.
The FastEthernet interface fa0/0 of router 1 is wrongly configured.

12. A host is transmitting a video over the network. How does the transport layer allow this host to use multiple applications to transmit other data at the same time as the video transmission?
It uses error control mechanisms.
It uses a connectionless protocol only for multiple simultaneous transmissions.
It uses multiple Layer 2 source addresses.
It uses multiple port numbers.

13. Refer to the exhibit. PC1 is unable to access PC2. To troubleshoot this problem, the technician needs to confirm that the next hop interface is operational. Which default gateway address should the technician ping from PC1 to confirm this?
10.0.0.254
192.168.0.249
192.168.0.250
10.0.1.254

14. Refer to the exhibit. Cable 1 and Cable 2 are wired for specific physical layer requirements. Which three segments use Cable 2? (Choose three.)
Segment 1
Segment 2
Segment 3
Segment 4
Segment 5
Segment 6

15. Refer to the exhibit. Which two facts can be determined about the topology? (Choose two.)
Three networks are needed.
Two logical address ranges are required.
A single broadcast domain is present.
Three collision domains are present.
Four networks are needed.

16. Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements are true about the IP configuration that is displayed? (Choose three.)
The assigned address is a private address.
The PC cannot communicate with the DNS server.
The network can have 126 hosts.
The prefix of the computer address is /26.
The IP address is routable on the Internet.
The IP address is a multicast address.

17. Which password restricts Telnet access to the router?
enable
enable secret
console
VTY

18. Refer to the exhibit. To create the initial configuration, a network technician connected host A to the router using the connection that is shown. Which statement is true about this connection?
It terminates at the Ethernet port of the router.
It provides out-of-band console access.
It terminates at the serial interface of the router.
It requires a Telnet client on host A to access the router.

19. Which device should be used for routing a packet to a remote network?
access switch
DHCP server
hub
router

20. Refer to the exhibit. The serial interface of the router was configured with the use of the commands that are shown. The router cannot ping the router that is directly connected to interface serial 0/0/0. What should the network technician do to solve this problem?
Configure the description at interface serial 0/0/0.
Configure an IP address on interface serial 0/0/0.
Remove the no shutdown command at interface serial 0/0/0
Reboot the router.

21. Refer to the exhibit. In a network, host A is sending data segments to host B. The flow control of the segments that are being exchanged is displayed. Which two statements are true about this communication? (Choose two.)
The initial window size is determined via the two-way handshake.
The window size for the TCP session that is represented is initially set to 3000 bytes.
Acknowledgment number 3001 indicates that host A will send the next segment with sequence number 3001.
Host B expects that the next received segment number will be 3000.
No more acknowledgments will be exchanged.

22. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator wants to remotely access the CLI of the router from PC1 using modem 1. Which port of the router should be connected to modem 2 to enable this access?
console
Ethernet
auxiliary
serial

23. Which OSI layer uses a connection-oriented protocol to ensure reliable delivery of data?
application layer
presentation layer
session layer
transport layer

24. What are two functions of the data link layer? (Choose two.)
It segments and reorders the data.
It exchanges data between programs that are running on the source and destination hosts.
It controls how data is placed onto the media.
It generates signals to represent the bits in each frame.
It encapsulates each packet with a header and a trailer to transfer it across the local media.

25. Refer to the exhibit. Which list refers only to end devices?
D,E,F,G
A,H,B,C
A,D,E,F
A,D,E,G

26. Refer to the exhibit. The diagram represents the process of sending e-mail between clients. Which list correctly identifies the component or protocol used at each numbered stage of the diagram?
1.MUA 2.MDA 3.MTA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.POP 7.MDA 8.MUA
1.MUA 2.POP 3.MDA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.MDA 7.SMTP 8.MUA
1.MUA 2.POP 3.SMTP 4.MDA 5.MTA 6.SMTP 7.POP 8.MUA
1.MUA 2.SMTP 3.MTA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.MDA 7.POP 8.MUA

27. Refer to the exhibit. Host B was powered off. What change will occur in the MAC table of the switch?
The table will remain unaffected.
The switch will remove the MAC address at Fa0/19 immediately.
The switch will retain the MAC address until host B is powered on again.
The switch will rebuild the MAC table by assigning the FFFF.FFFF.FFFF address to port Fa0/19.

28. Refer to the exhibit. A technician has connected the PC to the switch using a Category 6 UTP cable. Which two statements are true about this connection? (Choose two.)
The cable that is used is an Ethernet crossover cable.
The transmit pin of the cable is terminated to the receive pin.
The maximum distance between the switch and the PC can be 100 m.
The maximum supported bandwidth is 1000 Mb/s.
The Category 6 cable simulates a point-to-point WAN link and is unusable for this type of connection.

29. Refer to the exhibit. A host is using NAT to connect to the Internet. Which three IP addresses enable this connection? (Choose three.)
10.1.1.63
10.1.1.37
10.1.1.39
10.1.1.32
10.1.1.60
10.1.1.2

30. Refer to the exhibit. A PC is communicating with another PC on a remote network. The two networks are connected by three routers. Which action will help to identify the path between the hosts?
Use the ipconfig command at the host.
Use the ipconfig/all command at the destination.
Use the tracert command at the host.
Use the ping command at the destination.

31. An organization wants to create a subnet of the IP network 172.16.0.0. This subnet will accommodate 1000 hosts. Which subnet mask should be assigned to this network?
255.255.0.0
255.255.248.0
255.255.252.0
255.255.254.0
255.255.255.0
255.255.255.128

32. Refer to the exhibit. A host is connected to hub 1. Which combination of IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway can allow this host to function in the network?
IP address: 172.16.31.36 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.240 Default gateway: 172.16.31.35
IP address: 172.16.31.63 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.224 Default gateway: 172.16.31.35
IP address: 172.16.31.29 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.248 Default gateway: 172.16.31.35
IP address: 172.16.31.32 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.224 Default gateway: 172.16.31.35
IP address: 172.16.31.29 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.240 Default gateway: 172.16.30.1
IP address: 172.16.31.37 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.224 Default gateway: 172.16.31.35

33. Refer to the exhibit. A technician uses the nslookup command on the PC and views the output that is displayed in the exhibit. What is the IP address of the primary domain name server configured at the host? (Choose two.)
192.168.1.99
192.168.2.100
10.10.10.32
192.168.1.5
the IP address of the website resolver1.xyz.local

34. Which OSI layer offers ordered data reconstruction services?
application layer
network layer
presentation layer
session layer
transport layer

35. Refer to the exhibit. All devices in the network use default configurations. How many logical address ranges are required in this topology?
2
3
4
5
6

36. The network administrator wants to install a private application on a server. Which range of port numbers is normally assigned to this application to make it accessible by clients?
0 to 255
49152 to 65535
1024 to 49151
0 to 1023

37. Because of a security violation, the router password must be changed. What information can be learned from these configuration entries? (Choose two.)

Router(config)# line vty 0 4

Router(config-line)# password arj15

Router(config-line)# login
This configuration allows users to connect by using a modem.
Users must specify which line, 0 or 4, they wish to connect to when making a connection.
This configuration allows users to connect to the router via the use of the telnet command.
This configuration allows five users to make simultaneous connections to this router.
The configured password is automatically encrypted on the router.

38. Refer to the exhibit. Each media link is labeled. What type of cable should be used to connect the different devices?
Connection 1 - rollover cable Connection 2 - straight-through cable Connection 3 - crossover cable
Connection 1 - straight-through cable Connection 2 - crossover cable Connection 3 - rollover cable
Connection 1 - crossover cable Connection 2 - rollover cable Connection 3 - straight-through cable
Connection 1 - crossover cable Connection 2 - straight-through cable Connection 3 - rollover cable
Connection 1 - straight-through cable Connection 2 - straight-through cable Connection 3 - straight-through cable

39. Which two types of media are useful for connecting two devices separated by a distance of 500 meters? (Choose two.)
10 BASE-T
1000 BASE-TX
10 BASE-2
1000 BASE LX
1000 BASE-SX

40. Which information is used by the router to determine the path between the source and destination hosts?
the host portion of the IP address
the network portion of the IP address
host default gateway address
the MAC address

41. Refer to the exhibit. What two facts can be determined from the session information that is displayed? (Choose two.)
This exchange is part of the three-way handshake.
The destination port indicates that a Telnet session has been initiated.
The source port does not support communication with the destination port that is listed.
The destination port indicates that an SMTP session has been initiated.
The protocol is a connection-oriented protocol.

42. Refer to the exhibit. Host A is accessing multiple servers. Which combination of port number and address will uniquely identify a particular process running on a specific server?
MAC address of the server and port number of the service
IP address of the host and port number of the service
MAC address of the host and port number of the service
IP address of the server and port number of the service

43. A network technician wants to configure an IP address on a router interface by using the ip address 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 command. Which prompt should the technician see when entering this command?
Router>
Router(config-if)#
Router#
Router(config)#

44. Refer to the exhibit. Host X is unable to communicate with host Y. Which command can be run at host X to determine which intermediary device is responsible for this failure?
telnet 192.168.1.1
ping 192.168.1.1
ftp 192.168.1.1
tracert 192.168.1.1

45. Refer to the exhibit. In a network, PC1 sends a message to PC2. The frame received at PC2 is shown. What information in this frame determines the correct destination application?
timing and synchronization bits
destination and source physical addresses
destination and source logical network addresses
destination and source process numbers

46. An organization has been assigned network ID 10.10.128.0 and subnet mask 255.255.224.0. Which IP address range can be used for this organization?
10.10.128.0 to 10.10.160.255
10.10.128.0 to 10.10.159.255
10.10.128.0 to 10.10.192.255
10.10.128.0 to 10.10.0.159
10.10.128.0 to 10.10.159.0

47. What is the effect of using the Router# copy running-config startup-config command on a router?
The contents of ROM will change.
The contents of RAM will change.
The contents of NVRAM will change.
The contents of flash will change.

48. Which three IPv4 addresses represent valid host addresses for a subnet? (Choose three.)
10.1.12.79/28
10.1.12.113/28
10.1.12.32/28
10.1.11.5/27
10.1.11.97/27
10.1.11.128/27

49. Refer to the exhibit. The NAT functionality of the router is enabled to provide Internet access to the PC. However, the PC is still unable to access the Internet. Which IP address should be changed to 209.165.201.1 to enable the PC to access the Internet?
192.168.1.191
192.168.1.101
192.168.1.1
192.168.1.254

50. Which three statements are true about network layer addressing? (Choose three.)
It uniquely identifies each host.
It assists in forwarding packets across internetworks.
It uses a logical 32-bit IPv4 address.
It is not a configurable address.
It is a physical address.
It identifies the host from the first part of the address.

CCNA 1:Module 11

2008-08-11T04:19:00.000-07:00

Options With Highlight Colours are Correct Answer

1. Users in the network are experiencing slow response time when doing file transfers to a remote server. What command could be issued to determine if the router has experienced any input or output errors?
show running-config
show startup-config
show interfaces
show ip route
show version
show memory

2. Refer to the exhibit. A technician applies the configuration in the exhibit to a clean router. To verify the configuration, the technician issues the show running-config command in the CLI session with the router. What lines should the technician expect to see in the router output from the show running-config command?
enable password classline console 0password ccna
enable secret ciscoenable password classline console 0password ccna
enable secret 5 $1$v0/3$QyQWmJyT7zCa/yaBRasJm0enable password classline console 0password ccna
enable secret ciscoenable password 7 14141E0A1F17line console 0password 7 020507550A
enable secret 5 $1$v0/3$QyQWmJyT7zCa/yaBRasJm0enable password 7 14141E0A1F17line console 0password 7 020507550A

3. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator on HostA has problems accessing the FTP server. Layer three connectivity testing was successful from HostA to the S1 interface of RouterB. Which set of commands will allow the network administrator to telnet to RouterB and run debug commands?
RouterB(config)# enable secret class

RouterB(config)# line vty 0 4

RouterB(config-if)# login
RouterB(config)# enable secret class

RouterB(config)# line vty 0 2

RouterB(config-vty)# password cisco

RouterB(config-vty)# login
RouterB(config)# enable secret class

RouterB(config)# line vty 0

RouterB(config-line)# password cisco

RouterB(config-line)# login
RouterB(config)# enable secret class

RouterB(config)# line aux 0

RouterB(config-line)# password cisco

RouterB(config-line)# login
RouterB(config)# enable secret class

RouterB(config)# line aux 0

RouterB(config-vty)# password cisco

RouterB(config-vty)# login

4. Refer to the exhibit. The output is shown for the show ip route command executed on Router A. What does the IP address 192.168.2.2 represent?
Gateway for the 192.168.1.0 network
Gateway for the 192.168.3.0 network
IP assigned to the serial port on Router A
IP assigned to the serial port on Router B

5. What command is used to change the default router name to Fontana?
Router# name Fontana
Router# hostname Fontana
Router(config)# name Fontana
Router(config)# hostname Fontana

6. The serial connection shown in the graphic needs to be configured. Which configuration commands must be made on the Sydney router to establish connectivity with the Melbourne site? (Choose three.)
Sydney(config-if)# ip address 201.100.53.2 255.255.255.0
Sydney(config-if)# no shutdown
Sydney(config-if)# ip address 201.100.53.1 255.255.255.224
Sydney(config-if)# clock rate 56000
Sydney(config-if)# ip host Melbourne 201.100.53.2

7. Refer to the exhibit. What additional command is required to allow remote access to this switch?
NA-SW1(config-if)# no shutdown
NA-SW1(config)# enable password password
NA-SW1(config)# ip default-gateway address
NA-SW1(config-if)# description description

8. When network services fail, which port is most often used to access a router for management purposes?
AUX
Ethernet
Console
Telnet
SSH

9. A network administrator needs to keep the user ID, password, and session contents private when establishing remote CLI connectivity with a router to manage it. Which access method should be chosen?
Telnet
Console
AUX
SSH

10. In a Cisco router, when do changes made to the running-configuration take effect?
after a system restart
as the commands are entered
when logging off the system
when the configuration is saved to the startup-configuration

11. Refer to the exhibit. Which names correctly identify the CLI mode represented by the prompt for Switch-East4#? (Choose two.)
line configuration mode
user executive mode
global configuration mode
privileged executive mode
interface configuration mode
enable mode

12. Which three terms correctly define the forms of help available within the Cisco IOS? (Choose three.)
hot keys
context-check
context-sensitive
structured check
command override
command syntax check

13. Which combination of keys would be used at the CLI prompt to interrupt a ping or traceroute process?
Ctrl-C
Ctrl-P
Ctrl-R
Ctrl-Shift-6
Ctrl-Z

14. Refer to the exhibit. What command will place the router into the correct mode to configure an appropriate interface to connect to a LAN?
UBAMA# configure terminal
UBAMA(config)# line vty 0 4
UBAMA(config)# line console 0
UBAMA(config)# interface Serial 0/0/0
UBAMA(config)# interface FastEthernet 0/1

15. On a Cisco router, which interface would be used to make the initial configuration?
Console Port

16. Refer to the exhibit. A student is responsible for the IP addressing, configuration and connectivity testing of the network shown in the graphic. A ping from host B to host C results in a destination unreachable but a ping from host B to host A was successful. What two reasons could account for this failure based on the graphic and partial router output for the Dallas router? (Choose two.)
The host A is turned off.
The Fa0/0 interface on Dallas is shutdown.
The LAN cable is disconnected from host B.
The S0/0/1 IP address of Dallas is improperly configured.
The Fa0/0 interface on Dallas is in a different subnet than host B.
The clock rate is missing on the serial link between Dallas and NYC.

CCNA 1:Module 10

2008-08-11T04:18:00.000-07:00

Options With Highlight Colours are Correct Answer

1. Refer to the exhibit. A student working in the lab selects a cable that is wired as shown. Which connection types can successfully be made with this cable? (Choose two.)
connecting a PC to a router's console port
connecting two routers together via their fast ethernet ports
connecting two switches together at gigabit speeds
connecting a PC to a switch at Gigabit Ethernet speeds
connecting two devices with the same interface type at Fast Ethernet speeds

2. Which option identifies the primary interface which would be used for initial configuration of a Cisco router?
AUX interface
Ethernet interface
serial interface
console interface

3. What makes fiber preferable to copper cabling for interconnecting buildings? (Choose three.)
greater distances per cable run
lower installation cost
limited susceptibility to EMI/RFI
durable connections
greater bandwidth potential
easily terminated

4. A network administrator is required to use media in the network that can run up to 100 meters in cable length without using repeaters. The chosen media must be inexpensive and easily installed. The installation will be in a pre-existing building with limited cabling space. Which type of media would best meet these requirements?
STP
UTP
coaxial
single-mode fiber
multimode fiber

5. What does the term "attenuation" mean in data communication?
loss of signal strength as distance increases
time for a signal to reach its destination
leakage of signals from one cable pair to another
strengthening of a signal by a networking device

6. How many host addresses may be assigned on each subnetwork when using the 130.68.0.0 network address with a subnet mask of 255.255.248.0?
30
256
2046
2048
4094
4096

7. Which subnet mask would be assigned to the network address of 192.168.32.0 to provide 254 useable host addresses per subnetwork?
255.255.0.0
255.255.255.0
255.255.254.0
255.255.248.0

8. A company is planning to subnet its network for a maximum of 27 hosts. Which subnet mask would provide the needed hosts and leave the fewest unused addresses in each subnet?
255.255.255.0
255.255.255.192
255.255.255.224
255.255.255.240
255.255.255.248

9. What type of network cable is used between a terminal and a console port?
cross-over
straight-through
rollover
patch cable

10. Which device is used to create or divide broadcast domains?
hub
switch
bridge
router
repeater

11. Refer to the exhibit. What destination IP address will PC1 place in the header for a packet destined for PC2?
192.168.1.1
192.168.2.1
192.168.2.2
192.168.3.1
192.168.3.54

12. Refer to the exhibit. Based on the IP configuration shown, what would be the result of Host A and Host B attempting to communicate outside the network segment?
both host A and B would be successful
host A would be successful, host B would fail
host B would be successful, host A would fail
both Host A and B would fail

13. Which three types of connectors are commonly associated with Cisco's V.35 serial cables? (Choose three.)
RJ 11
DB 60
Winchester 15 pin
DB 9
smart serial
RJ 45

14. Refer to the exhibit. How many subnets are required to support the network that is shown?
2
3
4
5

15. What are three common methods for setting a UTP Ethernet port to MDI or MDIX operation? (Choose three.)
direct configuration of the device
cable color code association
cable selection and configuration
use of cable testers to determine pinouts
the enabling of the mechanism to electrically swap the transmit and receive pairs
the automatic detection and negotiating of MDI/MDIX operation of the port

16. Which three statements are true about the role of routers in the network? (Choose three.)
They propagate broadcasts.
They enlarge collision domains.
They segment broadcast domains.
They interconnect different network technologies.
Each router interface requires a separate network or subnet.
They maintain a common frame format between LAN and WAN interfaces.

17. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has decided to use packet capture software to evaluate all traffic from the student subnet on the way to the Internet. To ensure that all packets are captured, what network device should be used to connect the monitoring station to the network between R1 and R2?
router
hub
switch
wireless access point

18. Refer to the exhibit. Assume that all devices are using default settings. How many subnets are required to address the topology that is shown?
1
3
4
5
7

19. Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements are true about the exhibited topology? (Choose three.)
Hosts B and C are in the same subnet.
Five broadcast domains are present.
Host B is using a crossover cable to connect to the router.
Four broadcast domains are present.
Five networks are shown.
Host B is using a rollover cable to connect to the router.

20. To establish a console connection from a computer to a Cisco router, which cable wiring option would be used?
crossover cable
straight through cable
rollover cable
V.35 cable

21. Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements identify the type of cabling that would be used in the segments that are shown? (Choose three.)
Segment 1 uses backbone cabling.
Segment 1 uses a patch cable.
Segment 3 uses patch cabling.
Segment 3 uses vertical cabling.
Segment 3 uses horizontal cabling.
Segment 4 uses vertical cabling.

22. Refer to the exhibit. A network technician has been allocated the 192.168.1.0/24 private IP address range for use in the network that shown in the exhibit. Which subnet mask would be used to meet the host requirements for segment A of this internetwork?
255.255.255.128
255.255.255.192
255.255.255.224
255.255.255.240
255.255.255.248

CCNA 1:Module 9

2008-08-11T04:15:00.000-07:00

Options With Highlight Colours are Correct Answer

1. In the graphic, Host A has reached 50% completion in sending a 1 KB Ethernet frame to Host D when Host B wishes to transmit its own frame to Host C. What must Host B do?
Host B can transmit immediately since it is connected on its own cable segment.
Host B must wait to receive a CSMA transmission from the hub, to signal its turn.
Host B must send a request signal to Host A by transmitting an interframe gap.
Host B must wait until it is certain that Host A has completed sending its frame.

2. Ethernet operates at which layers of the OSI model? (Choose two.)
Network layer
Transport layer
Physical layer
Application layer
Session layer
Data-link layer

3. Which of the following describe interframe spacing? (Choose two.)
the minimum interval, measured in bit-times, that any station must wait before sending another frame.
the maximum interval, measured in bit-times, that any station must wait before sending another frame.
the 96-bit payload padding inserted into a frame to achieve a legal frame size
the 96-bit frame padding transmitted between frames to achieve proper synchronization
the time allowed for slow stations to process a frame and prepare for the next frame.
the maximum interval within which a station must send another frame to avoid being considered unreachable

4. What three primary functions does data link layer encapsulation provide? (Choose three.)
addressing
error detection
frame delimiting
port identification
path determination
IP address resolution

5. When a collision occurs in a network using CSMA/CD, how do hosts with data to transmit respond after the backoff period has expired?
The hosts return to a listen-before-transmit mode. <---
The hosts creating the collision have priority to send data.
The hosts creating the collision retransmit the last 16 frames.
The hosts extend their delay period to allow for rapid transmission.

6. What are three functions of the upper data link sublayer in the OSI model? (Choose three.)
recognizes streams of bits
identifies the network layer protocol.
makes the connection with the upper layers.
identifies the source and destination applications
insulates network layer protocols from changes in physical equipment.
determines the source of a transmission when multiple devices are transmitting

7. What does the IEEE 802.2 standard represent in Ethernet technologies?
MAC sublayer
Physical layer
Logical Link Control sublayer
Network layer

8. Why do hosts on an Ethernet segment that experience a collision use a random delay before attempting to transmit a frame?
A random delay is used to ensure a collision-free link.
A random delay value for each device is assigned by the manufacturer.
A standard delay value could not be agreed upon among networking device vendors.
A random delay helps prevent the stations from experiencing another collision during the transmission.

9. Refer to the exhibit. Which option correctly matches the frame field type with the contents that frame field includes?
header field - preamble and stop frame
data field - network layer packet
data field - physical addressing
trailer field - FCS and SoF

10. Host A has an IP address of 172.16.225.93 and a mask of 255.255.248.0. Host A needs to communicate with a new host whose IP is 172.16.231.78. Host A performs the ANDing operation on the destination address. What two things will occur? (Choose two.)
Host A will change the destination IP to the IP of the nearest router and forward the packet.
Host A will broadcast an ARP request for the MAC of its default gateway.
A result of 172.16.225.0 will be obtained.
Host A will broadcast an ARP request for the MAC of the destination host.
A result of 172.16.224.0 will be obtained.
A result of 172.16.225.255 will be obtained.

11 Which of the following is a drawback of the CSMA/CD access method?
Collisions can decrease network performance.
It is more complex than non-deterministic protocols.
Deterministic media access protocols slow network performance.
CSMA/CD LAN technologies are only available at slower speeds than other LAN technologies.

12. Ethernet operates at which layer of the TCP/IP network model?
application
physical
transport
internet
data link
network access

13. What is the primary purpose of ARP?
translate URLs to IP addresses
resolve IPv4 addresses to MAC addresses
provide dynamic IP configuration to network devices
convert internal private addresses to external public addresses

14. Refer to the exhibit. The switch and workstation are administratively configured for full-duplex operation. Which statement accurately reflects the operation of this link?
No collisions will occur on this link.
Only one of the devices can transmit at a time.
The switch will have priority for transmitting data.
The devices will default back to half duplex if excessive collisions occur.

15. Refer to the exhibit. Host_A is attempting to contact Server_B. Which statements correctly describe the addressing Host_A will generate in the process? (Choose two.)
A packet with the destination IP of Router_B.
A frame with the destination MAC address of Switch_A.
A packet with the destination IP of Router_A.
A frame with the destination MAC address of Router_A.

A packet with the destination IP of Server_B.
A frame with the destination MAC address of Server_B.

16 Which statements correctly describe MAC addresses? (Choose three.)
dynamically assigned
copied into RAM during system startup
layer 3 address
contains a 3 byte OUI
6 bytes long
32 bits long

17. Which two features make switches preferable to hubs in Ethernet-based networks? (Choose two.)
reduction in cross-talk
minimizing of collisions
support for UTP cabling
division into broadcast domains
increase in the throughput of communications

18. What are the two most commonly used media types in Ethernet networks today? (Choose two.)
coaxial thicknet
copper UTP
coaxial thinnet
optical fiber
shielded twisted pair

19. Convert the binary number 10111010 into its hexadecimal equivalent. Select the correct answer from the list below.
85
90
BA
A1
B3
1C

20. After an Ethernet collision, when the backoff algorithm is invoked, which device has priority to transmit data?
the device involved in the collision with the lowest MAC address
the device involved in the collision with the lowest IP address
any device in the collision domain whose backoff timer expires first
those that began transmitting at the same time

CCNA 1:Module 8

2008-08-11T04:14:00.000-07:00

Options With Highlight Colours are Correct Answer

1. Which OSI layer is responsible for binary transmission, cable specification, and physical aspects of network communication?
Presentation
Transport
Data Link
Physical

2. An installed fiber run can be checked for faults, integrity, and the performance of the media by using what device?
light injector
OTDR
TDR
multimeter

3. Which characteristics describe fiber optic cable? (Choose two.)
It is not affected by EMI or RFI.
Each pair of cables is wrapped in metallic foil.
It combines the technique of cancellation, shielding and twisting to protect data.
It has a maximum speed of 100 Mbps.
It is the most expensive type of LAN cabling.

4. When is a straight-through cable used in a network?
when connecting a router through the console port
when connecting one switch to another switch
when connecting a host to a switch
when connecting a router to another router

5. Refer to the exhibit. Which type of Category 5 cable is used to make an Ethernet connection between Host A and Host B?
coax cable
rollover cable
crossover cable
straight-through cable

6. Which method of signal transmission uses radio waves to carry signals?
electrical
optical
wireless
acoustic

7. In most business LANs, which connector is used with twisted-pair networking cable?
BNC
RJ-11

RJ-45
Type F

8. Which of the following is a characteristic of single-mode fiber-optic cable?
generally uses LEDs as the light source
relatively larger core with multiple light paths
less expensive than multimode
generally uses lasers as the light source

9. Which type of cable run is most often associated with fiber-optic cable?
backbone cable
horizontal cable
patch cable
work area cable

10. What are three measures of data transfer? (Choose three.)
goodput
frequency
amplitude
throughput
crosstalk
bandwidth

11. With the use of unshielded twisted-pair copper wire in a network, what causes crosstalk within the cable pairs?
the magnetic field around the adjacent pairs of wire
the use of braided wire to shield the adjacent wire pairs
the reflection of the electrical wave back from the far end of the cable
the collision caused by two nodes trying to use the media simultaneously

12. What is a primary role of the Physical layer in transmitting data on the network?
create the signals that represent the bits in each frame on to the media
provide physical addressing to the devices
determine the path packets take through the network
control data access to the media

13. In LAN installations where potential electrical hazards or electromagnetic interference may be present, what type of media is recommended for backbone cabling?
coax
fiber
Cat5e UTP
Cat6 UTP
STP

14. What is a possible effect of improperly applying a connector to a network cable?
Data will be forwarded to the wrong node.
Data transmitted through that cable may experience signal loss.
An improper signaling method will be implemented for data transmitted on that cable.
The encoding method for data sent on that cable will change to compensate for the improper connection.

15. Which fiber connector supports full duplex Ethernet?
Options three is right answer

16. What is considered a benefit of wireless as a media choice?
more host mobility
lower security risks
reduced susceptibility to interference
less impact of the surroundings on the effective coverage area

17. What characteristic of UTP cable helps reduce the effects of interference?
the metal braiding in the shielding
the reflective cladding around core
the twisting of the wires in the cable
the insulating material in the outer jacket

CCNA 1:Module 7

2008-08-11T04:12:00.000-07:00

Options With Highlight Colours are Correct Answer

1. Which three factors should be considered when implementing a Layer 2 protocol in a network? (Choose three.)
the Layer 3 protocol selected
the geographic scope of the network
the PDU defined by the transport layer
the physical layer implementation
the number of hosts to be interconnected

2. Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that the network in the exhibit is converged meaning the routing tables and ARP tables are complete, which MAC address will Host A place in the destination address field of Ethernet frames destined for www.server?
00-1c-41-ab-c0-00
00-0c-85-cf-65-c0
00-0c-85-cf-65-c1
00-12-3f-32-05-af

3. Which options are properties of contention-based media access for a shared media? (Choose three.)
non-deterministic
less overhead
one station transmits at a time
collisions exist
devices must wait their turn
token passing

4. What is true concerning physical and logical topologies?
The logical topology is always the same as the physical topology.
Physical topologies are concerned with how a network transfers frames.
Physical signal paths are defined by Data Link layer protocols.
Logical topologies consist of virtual connections between nodes.

5. What is true regarding media access control? (Choose three.)
Ethernet utilizes CSMA/CD
defined as placement of data frames on the media
contention-based access is also known as deterministic
802.11 utilizes CSMA/CD
Data Link layer protocols define the rules for access to different media
controlled access contains data collisions

6. Which statements describe the logical token-passing topology? (Choose two.)
Network usage is on a first come, first serve basis.
Computers are allowed to transmit data only when they possess a token.
Data from a host is received by all other hosts.
Electronic tokens are passed sequentially to each other.
Token passing networks have problems with high collision rates.

7. A network administrator has been asked to provide a graphic representation of exactly where the company network wiring and equipment are located in the building. What is this type of drawing?
logical topology
physical topology
cable path
wiring grid
access topology

8. What is the purpose of the preamble in an Ethernet frame?
is used as a pad for data
identifies the source address
identifies the destination address
marks the end of timing information
is used for timing synchronization with alternating patterns of ones and zeros

9. What statements are true regarding addresses found at each layer of the OSI model? (Choose two.)
Layer 2 may identify devices by a physical address burned into the network card
Layer 2 identifies the applications that are communicating
Layer 3 represents a hierarchical addressing scheme
Layer 4 directs communication to the proper destination network
Layer 4 addresses are used by intermediary devices to forward data

10. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement describes the media access control methods that are used by the networks in the exhibit?
All three networks use CSMA/CA
None of the networks require media access control.
Network 1 uses CSMA/CD and Network 3 uses CSMA/CA.
Network 1 uses CSMA/CA and Network 2 uses CSMA/CD.
Network 2 uses CSMA/CA and Network 3 uses CSMA/CD.

11. Refer to the exhibit. How many unique CRC calculations will take place as traffic routes from the PC to the laptop?
1
2
4
8

12. Refer to the exhibit. A frame is being sent from the PC to the laptop. Which source MAC and IP addresses will be included in the frame as it leaves RouterB? (Choose two.)
source MAC - PC
source MAC - S0/0 on RouterA
source MAC - Fa0/1 on RouterB
source IP - PC
source IP - S0/0 on RouterA
source IP - Fa0/1 of RouterB

13. Which sublayer of the data link layer prepares a signal to be transmitted at the physical layer?
LLC
MAC
HDLC
NIC

14. What two facts are true when a device is moved from one network or subnet to another? (Choose two.)
The Layer 2 address must be reassigned.
The default gateway address should not be changed.
The device will still operate at the same Layer 2 address.
Applications and services will need additional port numbers assigned.
The Layer 3 address must be reassigned to allow communications to the new network.

15. What is a function of the data link layer?
provides the formatting of data
provides end-to-end delivery of data between hosts
provides delivery of data between two applications
provides for the exchange data over a common local media

16. What is a characteristic of a logical point-to-point topology?
The nodes are physically connected.
The physical arrangement of the nodes is restricted.
The media access control protocol can be very simple.
The data link layer protocol used over the link requires a large frame header.

17. What is a primary purpose of encapsulating packets into frames?
provide routes across the internetwork
format the data for presentation to the user
facilitate the entry and exit of data on media
identify the services to which transported data is associated

18. What is the primary purpose of the trailer in a data link layer frame?
define the logical topology
provide media access control
support frame error detection
carry routing information for the frame

19. What are three characteristics of valid Ethernet Layer 2 addresses? (Choose three.)
They are 48 binary bits in length.
They are considered physical addresses.
They are generally represented in hexadecimal format.
They consist of four eight-bit octets of binary numbers.
They are used to determine the data path through the network.
They must be changed when an Ethernet device is added or moved within the network.

CCNA 1:Module 6

2008-08-11T04:10:00.000-07:00

Options With Highlight Colours are Correct Answer

1. Refer to the exhibit. Which network prefix will work with the IP addressing scheme shown in the graphic.
/24
/16
/20
/27
/25
/28

2. Which IPv4 subnetted addresses represent valid host addresses? (Choose three.)
172.16.4.127 /26
172.16.4.155 /26
172.16.4.193 /26
172.16.4.95 /27
172.16.4.159 /27
172.16.4.207 /27

3. Which statements are true regarding IP addressing? (Choose two.)
NAT translates public addresses to private addresses destined for the Internet.
Only one company is allowed to use a specific private network address space.
Private addresses are blocked from public Internet by router.
Network 172.32.0.0 is part of the private address space.
IP address 127.0.0.1 can be used for a host to direct traffic to itself.

4. Which process do routers use to determine the subnet network address based upon a given IP address and subnet mask?
binary adding
hexadecimal anding
binary division
binary multiplication
binary ANDing

5. Refer to the exhibit. Host A is connected to the LAN, but it cannot get access to any resources on the Internet. The configuration of the host is shown in the exhibit. What could be the cause of the problem?
The host subnet mask is incorrect.
The default gateway is a network address.
The default gateway is a broadcast address.
The default gateway is on a different subnet from the host.

6. What subnet mask would a network administrator assign to a network address of 172.30.1.0 if it were possible to have up to 254 hosts?
255.255.0.0
255.255.255.0
255.255.254.0
255.255.248.0

7. Which three IP addresses are private? (Choose three.)
172.168.33.1
10.35.66.70
192.168.99.5
172.18.88.90
192.33.55.89
172.35.16.5

8. Given the IP address and subnet mask of 172.16.134.64 255.255.255.224, which of the following would describe this address?
This is a useable host address.
This is a broadcast address.
This is a network address.
This is not a valid address.

9. A router interface has been assigned an IP address of 172.16.192.166 with a mask of 255.255.255.248. To which subnet does the IP address belong?
172.16.0.0
172.16.192.0
172.16.192.128
172.16.192.160
172.16.192.168
172.16.192.176

10. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has assigned the internetwork of LBMISS an address range of 192.168.10.0. This address range has been subnetted using a /29 mask. In order to accommodate a new building, the technician has decided to use the fifth subnet for configuring the new network (subnet zero is the first subnet). By company policies, the router interface is always assigned the first usable host address and the workgroup server is given the last usable host address. Which configuration should be entered into the workgroup server's properties to allow connectivity to the network?
IP address: 192.168.10.38 subnet mask: 255.255.255.240 default gateway: 192.168.10.39
IP address: 192.168.10.38 subnet mask: 255.255.255.240 default gateway: 192.168.10.33
IP address: 192.168.10.38 subnet mask: 255.255.255.248 default gateway: 192.168.10.33
IP address: 192.168.10.39 subnet mask: 255.255.255.248 default gateway: 192.168.10.31
IP address: 192.168.10.254 subnet mask: 255.255.255.0 default gateway: 192.168.10.1

11. Which of the following network devices are recommended to be assigned static IP addresses? (Choose three.)
LAN workstations
servers
network printers
routers
remote workstations
laptops

12. hich of the following are features of IPv6? (Choose three.)
larger address space
faster routing protocols
data types and classes of service
authentication and encryption
improved host naming conventions
same addressing scheme as IPv4

13. What is the primary reason for development of IPv6?
security
header format simplification
expanded addressing capabilities
addressing simplification

14. What two things will happen if a router receives an ICMP packet which has a TTL value of 1 and the destination host is several hops away? (Choose two.)
The router will discard the packet.
The router will decrement the TTL value and forward the packet to the next router on the path to the destination host.
The router will send a time exceeded message to the source host.
The router will increment the TTL value and forward the packet to the next router on the path to the destination host.
The router will send an ICMP Redirect Message to the source host.

15. Refer to the exhibit. Why would the response shown be displayed after issuing the command ping 127.0.0.1 on a PC?
The IP settings are not properly configured on the host.
Internet Protocol is not properly installed on the host.
There is a problem at the physical or data link layer.
The default gateway device is not operating.
A router on the path to the destination host has gone down.

16. How many bits make up an IPv4 address?
128
64
48
32

17. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator discovers that host A is having trouble with Internet connectivity, but the server farm has full connectivity. In addition, host A has full connectivity to the server farm. What is a possible cause of this problem?
The router has an incorrect gateway.
Host A has an overlapping network address.
Host A has an incorrect default gateway configured.
Host A has an incorrect subnet mask.
NAT is required for the host A network.

18. What three facts are true about the network portion of an IPv4 address? (Choose three.)
identifies an individual device
is identical for all hosts in a broadcast domain
is altered as packet is forwarded
varies in length
is used to forward packets
uses flat addressing

19. What is a group of hosts called that have identical bit patterns in the high order bits of their addresses?
an internet
a network
an octet
a radix
Bottom of Form
Top of Form
Bottom of Form

20. What is the network address of the host 172.25.67.99 /23 in binary?
10101100. 00011001.01000011.00000000
10101100. 00011001.01000011.11111111
10101100. 00011001.01000010.00000000
10101100. 00011001.01000010.01100011
10101100. 00010001.01000011. 01100010
10101100. 00011001.00000000.00000000

21. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has to develop an IP addressing scheme that uses the 192.168.1.0 /24 address space. The network that contains the serial link has already been addressed out of a separate range. Each network will be allocated the same number of host addresses. Which network mask will be appropriate to address the remaining networks?
255.255.255.248
255.255.255.224
255.255.255.192
255.255.255.240
255.255.255.128
255.255.255.252

CCNA 1:Module 5

2008-08-11T04:08:00.000-07:00

Options With Highlight Colours are Correct Answer

1. In an IPv4 environment, what information is used by the router to forward data packets from one interface of a router to another?
destination network address
source network address
source MAC address
well known port destination address

2. What information is added during encapsulation at OSI Layer 3?
source and destination MAC
source and destination application protocol
source and destination port number
source and destination IP address

3. In a connectionless system, which of the following is correct?
The destination is contacted before a packet is sent.
The destination is not contacted before a packet is sent.
The destination sends an acknowledgement to the source that indicates the packet was received.
The destination sends an acknowledgement to the source that requests the next packet to be sent.

4. Which IP packet field will prevent endless loops?
type-of-service
identification
flags
time-to-live
header checksum

5. Which portion of the network layer address does a router use to forward packets?
host portion
broadcast address
network portion
gateway address

6. Refer to the exhibit. Using the network in the exhibit, what would be the default gateway address for host A in the 192.133.219.0 network?
192.135.250.1
192.31.7.1
192.133.219.0
192.133.219.1

7. If the default gateway is configured incorrectly on the host, what is the impact on communications?
The host is unable to communicate on the local network.
The host can communicate with other hosts on the local network, but is unable to communicate with hosts on remote networks.
The host can communicate with other hosts on remote networks, but is unable to communicate with hosts on the local network.
There is no impact on communications.

8. What is the purpose of a default gateway?
physically connects a computer to a network
provides a permanent address to a computer
identifies the network to which a computer is connected
identifies the logical address of a networked computer and uniquely identifies it to the rest of the network
identifies the device that allows local network computers to communicate with devices on other networks

9. What type of routing uses information that is manually entered into the routing table?
dynamic
interior
static
standard

10. When the destination network is not listed in the routing table of a Cisco router, what are two possible actions that the router might take? (Choose two.)
The router sends an ARP request to determine the required next hop address.
The router discards the packet.
The router forwards the packet toward the next hop indicated in the ARP table.
The router forwards the packet to the interface indicated by the source address.
The router forwards the packet out the interface indicated by the default route entry.

11. What are the key factors to consider when grouping hosts into a common network? (Choose three.)
gateways
purpose
physical addressing
software version
geographic location
ownership

12. What is a component of a routing table entry?
the MAC address of the interface of the router
the destination Layer 4 port number
the destination host address
the next-hop address

13. Which intermediary devices could be used to implement security between networks? (Choose two.)
router
hub
switch
firewall
access point
bridge

14. What are three common problems with a large network? (Choose three.)
too few broadcasts
performance degradation
security issues
limited management responsibility
host identification
protocol compatibility

15. Refer to the exhibit. All devices shown in the exhibit have factory default settings. How many broadcast domains are represented in the topology that is shown?
3
4
5
7
8
11

16. Which three statements are true about routes and their use? (Choose three.)
If no route to the destination network is found, the packet is returned to the previous router.
If the destination network is directly connected, the router forwards the packet to the destination host.
If multiple network entries exist for the destination network, the most general route is used to forward the packet.
If no route exists for the destination network and a default route is present, the packet is forwarded to the next-hop router.
If the originating host has a default gateway configured, the packet for a remote network can be forwarded using that route.
If a host does not have a route manually configured for the destination network, the host will drop the packet.

17. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is troubleshooting a connectivity problem and needs to determine the address that is used to forward network packets out the network. Using the netstat -r command, the administrator would identify which address as the address to which all hosts send packets that are destined for an outside network?
10.10.10.26
127.0.0.1
10.10.10.6
10.10.10.1
224.0.0.0

18. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator notices that there are too many broadcasts on the network. What two steps can the network administrator take to resolve this problem? (Choose two.)
Replace S2 with a router.
Place all servers on S1.
Disable TCP/IP broadcasts.
Subnet the 192.168.0.0 /24 network.
Disable all unused interfaces on the switches.

19. Refer to the exhibit. The network in the exhibit is fully operational. What two statements correctly describe the routing for the topology that is shown? (Choose two.)
192.168.0.2 is the next-hop address that is used by R3 to route a packet from the 10.0.0.0 network to the 172.16.0.0 network.
10.0.0.1 is the next-hop address that is used by R1 to route a packet from the 192.168.12.0 network to the 10.0.0.0 network.
192.168.0.1 is the next-hop address that is used by R1 to route a packet from the 192.168.12.0 network to the 172.16.0.0 network.
172.16.0.1 is the next-hop address that is used by R3 to route a packet from the 10.0.0.0 to the 172.16.0.0 network.
192.168.0.1 is the next-hop address that is used by R2 to route a packet from the 172.16.0.0 network to the 192.168.12.0 network.
192.168.0.2 is the next-hop address that is used by R2 to route a packet from the 172.16.0.0 network to the 192.168.12.0 network.

20. What two characteristics are commonly associated with dynamic routing protocols? (Choose two.)
require no device configuration
provide routers with up-to-date routing tables
require less processing power than static routes require
consume bandwidth to exchange route information
prevent manual configuration and maintenance of the routing table

21. What statement describes the purpose of a default route?
A host uses a default route to transfer data to another host on the same network segment.
A host uses a default route to forward data to the local switch as the next hop to all destinations.
A host uses a default route to identify the Layer 2 address of an end device on the local network.
A host uses a default route to transfer data to a host outside the local network when no other route to the destination exists.

CCNA 1:Module 4

2008-08-11T04:07:00.000-07:00

Options With Highlight Colours are Correct Answer

1. Based on the transport layer header shown in the diagram, which of the following statements describe the established session? (Choose two.)
This is a UDP header.
This contains a Telnet request.
This contains a TFTP data transfer.
The return packet from this remote host will have an Acknowledgement Number of 43693.
This is a TCP header.

2. With TCP/IP data encapsulation, which range of port numbers identifies all well-known applications?
0 to 255
256 to 1022
0 to 1023
1024 to 2047
49153 to 65535

3. Why are port numbers included in the TCP header of a segment?
to indicate the correct router interface that should be used to forward a segment
to identify which switch ports should receive or forward the segment
to determine which Layer 3 protocol should be used to encapsulate the data
to enable a receiving host to forward the data to the appropriate application
to allow the receiving host to assemble the packet in the proper order

4. Which OSI model layer is responsible for regulating the flow of information from source to destination, reliably and accurately?
application
presentation
session
transport
network

5. Refer to the exhibit. Host A is using FTP to download a large file from Server 1. During the download process, Server 1 does not receive an acknowledgment from Host A for several bytes of transferred data. What action will Server 1 take as a result?
create a Layer 1 jam signal
reach a timeout and resend the data that needs to be acknowledged
send a RESET bit to the host
change the window size in the Layer 4 header

6. Why is flow control used for TCP data transfer?
to synchronize equipment speed for sent data
to synchronize and order sequence numbers so data is sent in complete numerical order
to prevent the receiver from being overwhelmed by incoming data
to synchronize window size on the server
to simplify data transfer to multiple hosts

7. Which two options represent Layer 4 addressing? (Choose two.)
identifies the destination network
identifies source and destination hosts
identifies the communicating applications
identifies multiple conversations between the hosts
identifies the devices communicating over the local media

8. Refer to the exhibit. In line 7 of this Wireshark capture, what TCP operation is being performed?
session establishment
segment retransmit
data transfer
session disconnect
Bottom of Form

9. Refer to the exhibit. What two pieces of information can be determined from the output that is shown? (Choose two.)
The local host is using well-known port numbers to identify the source ports.
A termination request has been sent to 192.135.250.10.
Communication with 64.100.173.42 is using HTTP Secure.
The local computer is accepting HTTP requests.
192.168.1.101:1042 is performing the three-way handshake with 128.107.229.50:80.

10. What is dynamically selected by the source host when forwarding data?
destination logical address
source physical address
default gateway address
source port

11. What are two features of the User Datagram Protocol (UDP)? (Choose two.)
flow control
low overhead
connectionless
connection-oriented
sequence and acknowledgements

12. What mechanism is used by TCP to provide flow control as segments travel from source to destination?
sequence numbers
session establishment
window size
acknowledgments

13. Which transport layer protocol provides low overhead and would be used for applications which do not require reliable data delivery?
TCP
IP
UDP
HTTP
DNS

14. Which information is found in both the TCP and UDP header information?
sequencing
flow control
acknowledgments
source and destination

15. Which three features allow TCP to reliably and accurately track the transmission of data from source to destination?
encapsulation
flow control
connectionless services
session establishment
numbering and sequencing
best effort delivery

16. During a TCP communication session, if the packets arrive to the destination out of order, what will happen to the original message?
The packets will not be delivered.
The packets will be retransmitted from the source.
The packets will be delivered and reassembled at the destination.
The packets will be delivered and not reassembled at the destination.

17. Which is an important characteristic of UDP?
acknowledgement of data delivery
minimal delays in data delivery
high reliability of data delivery
same order data delivery

18. After a web browser makes a request to a web server that is listening to the standard port, what will be the source port number in the TCP header of the response from the server?
13
53
80
1024
1728

19. Which event occurs during the transport layer three-way handshake?
The two applications exchange data.
TCP initializes the sequence numbers for the sessions.
UDP establishes the maximum number of bytes to be sent.
The server acknowledges the bytes of data received from the client.

CCNA 1:Module 3

2008-08-11T04:06:00.000-07:00

Options With Highlight Colours are Correct Answer

1. What application layer protocol is commonly used to support for file transfers between a client and a server?
HTML
HTTP
FTP
Telnet

2. What are two forms of application layer software? (Choose two.)
applications
dialogs
requests
services
syntax

3. A network administrator is designing a network for a new branch office of twenty-five users. What are the advantages of using a client-server model? (Choose two.)
centralized administration
does not require specialized software
security is easier to enforce
lower cost implementation
provides a single point of failure

4. What is the purpose of resource records in DNS?
temporarily holds resolved entries
used by the server to resolve names
sent by the client to during a query
passes authentication information between the server and client

5. What is the automated service that matches resource names with the required IP address?
HTTP
SSH
FQDN
DNS
Telnet
SMTP

6. What three protocols operate at the Application layer of the OSI model? (Choose three.)
ARP
DNS
PPP
SMTP
POP
ICMP

7. What are three properties of peer-to-peer applications? (Choose three.)
acts as both a client and server within the same communication.
requires centralized account administration.
hybrid mode includes a centralized directory of files.
can be used in client-server networks.
requires a direct physical connection between devices.
centralized authentication is required.

8. Which application layer protocols correctly match a corresponding function? (Choose two.)
DNS dynamically allocates IP addresses to hosts
HTTP transfers data from a web server to a client
POP delivers email from the client to the server email server
SMTP supports file sharing
Telnet provides a virtual connection for remote access

9. Which email components are used to forward mail between servers? (Choose two.)
MDA
IMAP
MTA
POP
SMTP
MUA

10. As compared to SSH, what is the primary disadvantage of telnet?
not widely available
does not support encryption
consumes more network bandwidth
does not support authentication

11. Which statements are correct concerning the role of the MTA in handling email? (Choose three.)
routes email to the MDA on other servers
receives email from the client's MUA
receives email via the POP3 protocol
passes email to the MDA for final delivery
uses SMTP to route email between servers
delivers email to clients via the POP3 protocol

12. Which two protocols are used to control the transfer of web resources from a web server to a client browser? (Choose two.)
ASP
FTP
HTML
HTTP
HTTPS
IP

13. A small home network has been installed to interconnect three computers together for gaming and file sharing. What two properties represent this network type? (Choose two.)
User accounts are centralized.
Security is difficult to enforce.
Specialized operating system software is required.
File permissions are controlled by a single computer.
A computer that responds to a file sharing request is functioning as a server.

14. Which layer of the OSI model supplies services that allow user to interface with the network?
physical
session
network
presentation
application
transport

15. Refer to the exhibit. What is the destination port for the communication that is represented on line 5?
80
1261
15533
3912
65520

16. What are two characteristics of peer-to-peer networks? (Choose two.)
scalable
one way data flow
decentralized resources
centralized user accounts
resource sharing without a dedicated server

17. What application layer protocol describes the services that are used for file sharing in Microsoft networks?
DHCP
DNS
SMB
SMTP
Telnet

18. What are two characteristics of clients in data networks? (Choose two.)
use daemons
initiate data exchanges
are repositories of data
may upload data to servers
listen for requests from servers

19. What is the role of the OSI application layer?
provides segmentation of data
provides encryption and conversion of data
provides the interface between the applications on either end of the network
provides control of all the data flowing between the source and destination devices

20. How does the application layer on a server usually process multiple client request for services?
ceases all connections to the service
denies multiple connections to a single daemon
suspends the current connection to allow the new connection
uses support from lower layer functions to distinguish between connections to the service

CCNA 1:Module 2

2008-08-11T04:04:00.000-07:00

Options With Highlight Colours are Correct Answer

1. Which statements correctly identify the role of intermediary devices in the network? (Choose three.)
determine pathways for data.
initiate data communications.
retime and retransmit data signals.
originate the flow of data .
manage data flows.
final termination point for data flow.

2. Select the statements that are correct concerning network protocols. (Choose three.)
define the structure of layer specific PDU's.
dictate how to accomplish layer functions.
outline the functions necessary for communications between layers.
limit hardware compatibility.
require layer dependent encapsulations.
eliminate standardization among vendors.

3. What are the key functions of encapsulation? (Choose three.)
allows modification of the original data before transmission.
identifies pieces of data as part of the same communication.
enables consistent network paths for communication.
ensures that data pieces can be directed to the correct receiving end device.
enables the reassembly of complete messages.
tracks delay between end devices.

4. Which two layers of the OSI model have the same functions as the TCP/IP model Network Access Layer? (Choose two.)
Network.
Transport.
Physical.
Data Link.
Session.

5. What is a PDU?
corruption of a frame during transmission.
data reassembled at the destination.
retransmitted packets due to lost communication.
a layer specific encapsulation.

6. Which characteristic correctly refers to end devices in a network?
manage data flows.
originate data flow.
retime and retransmit data signals.
determine pathways for data.

7. Refer to the exhibit. "Cell A" at IP address 10.0.0.34 has established an IP session with "IP Phone 1" at IP address 172.16.1.103. Based upon the graphic, which device type best describes the function of wireless device "Cell A?"
the destination device
an end device
an intermediate device
a media device

8. Refer to the exhibit. Which three labels correctly identify the network types for the network segments that are shown? (Choose three.)
Network A -- WAN
Network B -- WAN
Network C -- LAN
Network B -- MAN
Network C -- WAN
Network A -- LAN

9. Which three statements best describe a Local Area Network (LAN)? (Choose three.)
A LAN is usually in a single geographical area.
The network is administered by a single organization.
The connection between segments in the LAN is usually through a leased connection.
The security and access control of the network are controlled by a service provider.
A LAN provides network services and access to applications for users within a common organization.
Each end of the network is generally connected to a Telecommunication Service Provider (TSP).

10. Refer to the exhibit. Which networking term describes the data interleaving process represented in the graphic?
piping
PDU
streaming
multiplexing
encapsulation

11. What is the primary purpose of Layer 4 port assignment?
to identify devices on the local media
to identify the hops between source and destination
to identify to the intermediary devices the best path through the network
to identify the source and destination end devices that are communicating
to identify the processes or services that are communicating within the end devices

12. What device is considered an intermediary device?
file server
IP phone
laptop
printer
switch

13. Refer to the exhibit. Which term correctly identifies the device type that is included in the area B?
source
end
transfer
intermediary

14. Refer to the exhibit. What type of network is shown?
WAN
MAN
LAN
WLAN

15. Which layer encapsulates the segment into packets?
physical
data link
network
transport

16. What can be identified by examining the network layer header?
the destination device on the local media
the destination host address
the bits that will be transferred over the media
the source application or process creating the data

17. Refer to the exhibit. Which set of devices contains only end devices?
A, C, D
B, E, G, H
C, D, G, H, I, J
D, E, F, H, I, J
E, F, H, I, J

18. During the encapsulation process, what occurs at the data link layer?
No address is added.
The logical address is added.
The physical address is added.
The process port number is added.

19. What is the purpose of the TCP/IP Network Access layer?
path determination and packet switching
data representation, encoding, and control
reliability, flow control, and error detection
detailing the components that make up the physical link and how to access it
the division of segments into packets

20. What is the proper order of the layers of the OSI model from the highest layer to the lowest layer?
physical, network, application, data link, presentation, session, transport
application, physical, session, transport, network, data link, presentation
application, presentation, physical, session, data link, transport, network
application, presentation, session, transport, network, data link, physical
presentation, data link, session, transport, network, physical, application

CCNA 1:Module 1

2008-08-11T04:02:00.000-07:00

Options With Highlight Colours are Correct Answer

1. Which of the following descriptions are true regarding the management connections on a Cisco router? (Choose three.)

They are non-network connections.

They are used to connect the router to the rest of the production network.

They are synchronous serial ports.

They are used for initial router configuration.

They are asynchronous serial ports.

They are accessed using their assigned IP address.

2. The console port can be used for which of the following? (Choose three.)

debugging.

password recovery.

routing data between networks.

troubleshooting.

connecting one router to another.

3. Which of the following describes the function of a WAN?

connects peripherals in a single location.

connects multiple networks in a single building.

provides connectivity on a LAN.

provides connectivity over a large geographic area.

4. An internetwork must include which of the following? (Choose three.)

switching.

static addressing.

IETF standardization.

dynamic or static routing.

consistent end-to-end addressing.

5. ABC Company just purchased three new routers to start their company network. Which items are needed to establish a terminal session between a PC and the router for the initial configuration? (Choose three.)

straight-through cable.

terminal emulation software.

rollover cable.

RJ-45 to DB-9 connector.

V.35 cable.

6.Terminal emulation software, such as HyperTerminal, can be used to configure a router. Which of the following HyperTerminal options shown in the graphic are correctly set to allow configuration of a Cisco router? (Choose three.)

bits per second.

data bits.

parity.

stop bits.

flow control.

7. Which of the following devices are used in the construction of a WAN? (Choose three.)

hubs.

routers.

communication servers.

transceivers.

modems.

multi-port repeaters.

8. Which of the following are functions of RAM? (Choose three.)

contains startup configuration file.

stores routing table.

holds fast switching cache.

retains contents when power is removed.

stores running configuration file.

9. Why is a console connection to a router or switch preferred when troubleshooting? (Choose two.)

can be accessed remotely.

does not depend on network services.

displays startup and error messages by default.

does not require special components.

10. Which basic components do a router and a standard desktop PC have in common? (Choose three.)

CPU.

hard drive.

input/output interfaces.

keyboard.

monitor.

system bus.

11. During the initial configuration of a 2600 series Cisco router, which cable is required for connecting a PC to the console port?

twisted.

crossover.

rollover.

straight.

12. A router is composed of many internal components. Which of the following components stores a copy of the router's configuration file?

metal-oxide memory.

read only memory.

flash memory.

non-volatile random access memory.

13. What contains the instructions that a router uses to control the flow of traffic through its interfaces?

packet configuration.

configuration files.

flash memory.

internal components.

14. Several Ethernet hosts on a LAN need the gateway services of a Cisco 2500 series router. Which of the following would be needed to physically connect a router to all of the hosts on the LAN? (Choose two.)

a crossover cable between the transceiver on a router and a switch.

a crossover cables between a switch and hosts on a LAN.

a straight-through cable between the auxiliary port on a router and a switch.

a rollover cable between the console port on a router and a switch.

straight-through cables between a switch and hosts on a LAN.

a straight-through cable between the transceiver on a router and a switch.

15. Which router component holds the configuration file when power is lost?

volatile random access memory.

read only memory.

non-volatile random access memory.

flash memory.

16. Which of the following layers of the OSI model are incorporated in WAN standards? (Choose two.)

physical layer.

application layer.

transport layer.

data link layer.

session layer.

17. Which of the following are true regarding router interfaces? (Choose three.)

provide temporary memory for the router configuration files.

connect the router to the network for packet entry and exit.

can be on the motherboard or a separate module.

hold the IOS image.

connect the router to LANs and WANs.

18. Which of the following tasks can be accomplished through a management connection on a router? (Choose three.)

troubleshooting problems.

monitoring the system.

capturing LAN data packets.

configuring the router.

routing data packets.

19. What do routers use to select the best path for outgoing data packets?

ARP tables.

bridging tables.

routing tables.

switching tables.

20. Which of the following are functions of NVRAM? (Choose two.)

stores the routing table.

retains contents when power is removed.

stores the startup configuration file.

contains the running configuration file.

stores the ARP table.

21. Select the statements that correctly describe flash memory in a 2600 series router? (Choose two.)

holds the startup configuration by default.

can be upgraded with single in-line memory modules.

stores Cisco IOS software images.

stores routing table information by default.

maintains the only copy of an IOS image after the router is booted.

Posted by: Suraj Dhakal

CCNA4 Module 9 (77%)

2008-07-19T06:40:00.000-07:00

CCNA4 v4.0 download(updated 19/7/2008)

CCNA Discovery 4 Module 9 Scored 77%
1
Upon completion of a proposal, a network design team must sell their ideas to two key stakeholders. Who are these two stakeholders? (Choose two.)

Customers***

licensing boards

cabling contractors***

internal management

project implementation team

2
NetworkingCompany completes the installation of a network upgrade for a retail customer. All of the onsite tests complete successfully and the customer IT staff approves the results of the tests. The manager of the retail store contacts NetworkingCompany to inform the company that the store will not pay for the upgrade until a recently purchased software package is installed and tested on the network. Which two items that are contained in the proposal can the account manager refer to when discussing this issue with the store manager? (Choose two.)

the project scope***

the bill-of-material

the project timeline***

the terms and conditions

the business goals of the customer

the evaluation of the current network

3
Which proposal section describes the intended routing protocol, security mechanisms, and addressing for the planned network?

logical design***

physical design

executive summary

implementation plan

network requirements

4
In order to finalize a project proposal, an account manager of a networking company creates the terms and conditions section. What are two clauses that should be included in this section? (Choose two.)

cost summary***

installation steps

change order procedures***

problem resolution process

maintenance contract quotation

5
A company informs the account manager that the installation of a new edge router at the customer remote branch location cannot be done at the scheduled time because of a large order that the branch office needs to complete. As a result, the end date of the project must be adjusted to accommodate the additional time. What is the action should the account manager take?

Cancel the order for the new edge router.

Work with designer to redesign the branch network.

Instruct the technician to complete the install of the router at on the date in the contract.

Adjust the timeline documentation to show the company how the delay will affect the project completion date.***

6
Which statement describes a phased installation into an existing network?

A phased installation generally takes less time and expense than a green-field installation.

A phased installation is not suitable for large, multi-site network installations or upgrades.

A phased installation requires detailed planning in order to avoid disruption of user services.***

A phased installation involves building an entire replacement network and migrating users over to it.

7
The NetworkingCompany team is tasked to prepare an implementation schedule for a customer. It is determined that the new firewalls and wireless controllers that are specified in the design cannot be delivered and installed within the agreed upon time frame. The NetworkingCompany informs the customer of the problem. What two options can the NetworkingCompany team take to ensure the success of the project? (Choose two.)

plan to add additional staff and resources to shorten the installation time after the new equipment is delivered***

eliminate redundancy in the design to reduce the amount of equipment that is needed

renegotiate a new time frame with the customer to accommodate the delay***

delay the installation of the security devices and controllers until a later time

redesign the network to use only readily available equipment and software

8
A network installation team is assigned to replace all core switches in an existing data center. No other upgrades are planned. Which kind of installation is this?

a new installation

a fork-lift installation

a phased installation***

a green field installation

9
What two items are typically included in the executive summary of a proposal? (Choose two.)

project scope summary***

high-level implementation plan

quotes for all needed equipment

technical requirements for the design

emphasis on the benefits that meet the goals of the customer***

10
Included in a Bill of Materials (BOM) for a SOHO wired implementation is a Cisco 2811 router, Catalyst 2560 switch, four PCs, three laptops, and a networked printer. Wireless LAN capability will be implemented on this network. Which two equipment types must be added to the BOM to implement this request? (Choose two.)

DNS server

LAN switch ***

wireless NICs

DHCP server

wireless access points***

11
An upgraded version of the Cisco IOS has been purchased. However, the CD arrived damaged. How will this loss be covered?

a hardware warranty

a software warranty

the Cisco SMARTnet Service***

an additional service contract

12
The operation of a new branch location network is delayed because a VPN cannot be configured and established between the branch location and the main office. It is determined that the router at the main office does not have enough memory and does not have the correct Cisco IOS version image to support the VPN features. To prevent this delay, this problem should have been identified and corrected during which part of the design project?

the preparation of the business case

the prioritizing of the technical goals

the characterization of the existing network***

the implementation of the approved design

13
AAA Financial Services Company is performing implementation planning for a core switch upgrade. The company has 200 financial software programmers that work billable hours during the week. They have critical, scheduled money transfer transmissions that occur at hourly intervals every night. There are two, two-hour long IT maintenance windows scheduled for software upgrades, one on Saturday and one on Sunday. The bank advertises online banking as available 24 hours on business days and 21 hours on the weekends. However, a network upgrade that is necessary to replace some switches is expected to take four hours. Because of rack constraints, this time includes three hours to remove the old switches before the new switches can be installed and one hour to test the logical configuration. How should the implementation scheduling be handled?

Defer the software upgrades. Use the Saturday window to perform the hardware installation. Use the Sunday window to perform the logical testing.

Coordinate and publish a separate four-hour downtime during Friday to perform the complete switch installation and testing process. Use the Saturday and Sunday windows to correct any outage problems after the Friday window.

Coordinate and publish two, four-hour downtimes incorporating the published Saturday and Sunday windows. Defer any software upgrades until the new network is proven to be working correctly with the old software. Use the Sunday window as a fallback scheduling period if there are problems necessitating backing out of the Saturday window.

Coordinate and publish an eight-hour downtime incorporating the Saturday window. This will allow four hours for installation and logical testing, one hour for troubleshooting and decision, and three hours to roll back to the previous configuration if the new switching cannot pass the logical testing. Defer any software upgrades until the new network is proven to be working correctly with the old software. ****

14
A customer has just taken delivery of a Cisco 2811 router and Catalyst 3560 switch. Included with the purchase is the SMARTnet Service. Which two resources are included with SMARTnet Service? (Choose two.)

signature file updates

technical support from TAC***

maintenance releases for OS

software application major releases***

software application maintenance and minor releases

15
What service is provided Cisco standard warranty?

software application maintenance

replacement of defected hardware***

next business day delivery of replacement parts

access to the Cisco Technical Assistance Center (TAC) 24 hours a day, 7 days a week

16
What are two important guidelines when creating a slide presentation for a meeting with a customer? (Choose two.)

Use all capital letters on words and phrases when possible for added emphasis.

Provide varied background graphics to enhance viewer interest.

Use contrasting colors for background and text to aid visibility.***

Change fonts frequently to denote differences in subject matter.

Use bulleted text to lead the discussion.****

17
Which two statements describe factors that influence the layout of a proposal? (Choose two.)

Proposal layouts are required to use sans serif typefaces.

A specific proposal layout is followed when one is specified in the RFP. ***

A designer chooses the layout if a written RFP does not specify an outline.***

The software that is used to create the proposal dictates the proposal layouts.

Proposal layouts are required to use a format that is designed by the network engineer.

18
Which occurrence would indicate a failure of the design phase?

The incorrect model switches were ordered.

There is no customer signoff for task completion.

New requirements are identified after implementation begins.

The new network capacity is inadequate to support required traffic.***

19
Which two items will a systems engineer include in an implementation plan? (Choose two.)

references to design documents

the business goals of the customer***

diagrams of the existing traffic flows***

the steps to install and test the network

cost of each network device and component

20
A Cisco 1841 router has been purchased without an agreement for SMARTnet Service. What two items are guaranteed under the standard warranty? (Choose two.)

access to TAC

replacement of defective physical media***

advanced replacement of hardware parts

access to a renewable standard warranty contract

under normal use, replacement of defective hardware***

CCNA4 Module 7(90,5%)

2008-07-19T06:39:00.000-07:00

CCNA4 v4.0 download(updated 19/7/2008)

1
Why is it important to record baseline measurements of a prototype network?

Test results show security weaknesses after the baseline tests are run.

The baseline is the point at which the network is operating at its fullest potential.

Baseline measurements define a point at which network traffic has exceeded the designed capabilities of the network.

Test results are compared to the baseline to see how the test conditions increase processor use or decrease available bandwidth.*****

2

Refer to the exhibit. During prototype testing, verification of VLAN connectivity is being performed. Based on the information shown, what command produced the output?

show spanning-tree

show interfaces trunk********

show cdp neighbors

show interfaces

show ip interface brief

3
How do designers decide which network functions need to be included in the prototype test?

They select the functions that align with the business goals.******

They select the functions that occur at the network core.

They select the functions that do not exist in the existing network.

They select the functions from a list of generic network operations.

4

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has been given the task of creating a design for a temporary classroom building that is to be set up outside an overcrowded school. In testing the prototype, it is found that the student PC cannot ping the teacher PC. All the switch interfaces are active and connected properly, as is interface Fa0/0 of the router. Given that only the commands shown have been added to the router configuration, what is the source of the problem?

The IP settings on the student PC are incorrect.*******

The default gateway on the teacher PC is misconfigured.

The router Fa0/0 interface has not been configured as a VLAN trunk.

The Fa0/0 physical interface has not been configured with an IP address and subnet mask.

The administrator forgot to configure a routing protocol to allow the ping packets to reach the teacher PC subnet.

5

Refer to the exhibit. What two measures can be taken to address the areas of weakness circled in the network design? (Choose two.)

Provide redundant connections to all end users.

Add another core switch to increase redundancy.

Add a switch in the server block connecting the server farm to each core switch.*******

Add an additional switch to the DMZ and direct links from the new switch to the core switches.

Provide a redundant firewall router connecting to a second ISP, the core switches, and the DMZ.*******

6

Refer to the exhibit. After all the interfaces have stabilized, what is the spanning-tree state of all the enabled interfaces of SW11?

discarding

Forwarding****

learning

listening

7
A network engineer has decided to pilot test a portion of a new network design rather than rely on a prototype for proof-of-concept. What are two advantages of pilot testing a design concept? (Choose two.)

The test network experiences real-world network traffic.*********

Users within the enterprise are not affected by the test.

Network response can be tested in unplanned and unpredictable situations.*********

Unlikely failure conditions can be conveniently tested.

Network response can be tested in a highly controlled simulated environment.

8

Refer to the exhibit. During prototype testing of the Cisco network shown, connectivity must be verified. Assuming all connections are working and CDP is enabled on all devices and interfaces, on which device was the command issued?

R1********

S1

R3

S2

R5

S3

9
Switch port Fa0/24 was previously configured as a trunk, but now it is to be used to connect a host to the network. How should the network administrator reconfigure switch port Fa0/24?

Use the switchport mode access command from interface configuration mode.

Enter the switchport nonegotiate command from interface configuration mode.

Administratively shut down and re-enable the interface to return it to the default.

Enter the no switchport mode trunk command in interface configuration mode.*****

Use the switchport access vlanvlan number command from interface configuration mode to remove the port from the trunk and add it to a specific VLAN.

10

Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is performing an initial installation of a new switch in the east wing. The technician removes the switch from the box, makes the connections to the network, and adds the configuration shown. The technician notifies the network administrator that the switch has been installed. When the network administrator at the home office attempts to telnet to the switch from host 192.168.0.1, the connection fails. What action should the network technician take?

Add an enable password to the switch.

Add a default gateway to the switch configuration.*********

Configure the switch with an IP access list to permit the host connection.

Enable the physical interfaces of the switch with the no shutdown command.

11

Refer to the exhibit. The redundant paths are of equal bandwidth and EIGRP is the routing protocol in use. Which statement describes the data flow from Server to PC2?

EIGRP load balances across the R3 to R1 and R3 to R2 links. **********

EIGRP load balances across the R1 to Switch3 and R2 to Switch3 paths.

EIGRP load balances across the Switch1 to Switch3 and Switch1 to Switch2 paths.

EIGRP does not load balance in this topology.

12
In the router command encapsulation dot1q 10, what does the number 10 represent?

the metric used for a particular route

the number of the VLAN associated with the encapsulated subinterface*********

the priority number given to the device for the election process

the number that must match the Fast Ethernet subinterface number

the number used to program the router for unequal cost path load balancing

13
Which protocol allows a switch port to transition directly to the forwarding state after a failure is detected?

STP********

BGP

RSTP

HSRP

14
A network designer needs to determine if a proposed IP addressing scheme allows efficient route summarization and provides the appropriate amount of scalability to a design. What is useful for validating a proposed hierarchical IP addressing scheme?

NBAR

a pilot network

a route summary

a network simulator********

a physical topology map

15

Refer to the exhibit. A network designer creates a test plan that includes the specification shown. In which section of the test plan would this specification be found?

Test Description

Test Procedures

Design and Topology Diagram

Actual Results and Conclusions

Anticipated Results and Success Criteria***********

16
While preparing a network test plan document, a network designer records all initial and modified device configurations. Which section of the document typically contains this information?

Appendix*******

Test Procedures

Test Description

Actual Results and Conclusions

Anticipated Results and Success Criteria

17

Refer to the exhibit. The users on the 192.168.10.192 network are not allowed Internet access. The network design calls for an extended ACL to be developed and tested. Where should the ACL be placed for the least effect on other network traffic?

inbound on Fa0/0 of R3

outbound on Fa0/0 of R3

inbound on Fa0/1 of R3

outbound on Fa0/1 of R3*******

inbound on Fa0/1 of R2

outbound on S0/0 of R2

18

Refer to the exhibit. Why are interfaces Fa0/11, Fa0/23, and Fa0/24 not shown in this switch output?

Interfaces Fa0/11, Fa0/23, and Fa0/24 are trunks.********

Interfaces Fa0/11, Fa0/23, and Fa0/24 are shutdown.

Interfaces Fa0/11, Fa0/23, and Fa0/24 are blocking.

Interfaces Fa0/11, Fa0/23, and Fa0/24 failed diagnostics.

19
What OSI model Layer 2 security measure can a network engineer implement when prototyping network security?

a firewall at the network edge

port security at the access design layer**********

port security at the distribution design layer

IP access control lists at the access design layer

20

Refer to the exhibit. During prototyping, Layer 2 functionality is being tested. Based on the output shown, which two pieces of information can be determined? (Choose two.)

Switch1 is the root bridge.

Interface Fa0/2 on Switch1 has no role in the operation of spanning tree.

Interface Fa0/2 on Switch1 is the alternate port used to reach the root bridge.****

Based on the entries in the "Role" column, it can be concluded that RSTP has been implemented.****

Interface Fa0/1 on Switch1 is the forwarding port selected for the entire spanning-tree topology.

21
What Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP) state is given to the forwarding port elected for every switched Ethernet LAN segment?

root

backup

alternate

Designated*******