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CCNA 2 - Module 4

Which event will cause a triggered update?

a route is installed in the routing table



Three routers running a distance-vector routing protocol lost all power, including the battery backups. When the routers reload, what will happen?

They will send updates that include only directly connected routes to their directly connected neighbors.



What does the RIP holddown timer do?

instructs routers to ignore updates, for a specified time or event, about possible inaccessible routes

Which two statements are true regarding the function of the RIPv1 routing updates? (Choose two).

updates are broadcast at regular intervals

broadcasts are sent to 255.255.255.255



Which of the following statements are correct about RIP?

will send out an update if there is a failure of a link



Which two statements describe EIGRP? (Choose two.)

EIGRP sends triggered updates whenever there is a change in topology that influences the routing information.

EIGRP sends a partial routing table update, which includes just routes that have been changed.



Which statement is true regarding cisco’s RIP_JITTER variable?

It prevents the synchronization of routing updates by subtracting a random length of time ranging from 0% to 15% of the specified interval time from the next routing update interval.



What actions will occur after RouterA loses connectivity to network 114.125.16.0? (Choose two.)

RouterB will include network 123.92.76.0 and 136.125.85.0 in its update to RouterA.

Router C will learn of the loss of connectivity to network 114.125.16.0 from RouterB.



Which of the following methods does split horizon use to reduce incorrect routing information?

Information learned from one source is not distributed back to that source.



The graphic shows a network that is configured to use RIP routing protocol. Router2 detects that the link to Router1 has gone down. It then advertises the network for this link with a hop count metric of 16. Which routing loop prevention mechanism is in effect?

route poisoning



What is the purpose of the TTL field in the IP header?

limits the time or hops that a packet can traverse through the network before it should be discarded



Which of the following can exist in a distance vector network that has not converged? (Choose three.)

routing loops

inconsistent traffic forwarding

inconsistent routing table entries



Refer to the exhibit. The routers in this network are running RIP. Router A has not received an update from Router B in over three minutes. How will Router A respond?

The Invalid timer will mark the route as unusable if an update has not been received in 180 seconds.



A network administrator is evaluating RIP versus EIGRP for a new network. The network will be sensitive to congestion and must respond quickly to topology changes. What are two good reasons to choose EIGRP instead of RIP in this case? (Choose two.)

EIGRP only updates affected neighbors.

EIGRP updates are partial.



Refer to the exhibit. What path will packets from the 192.168.1.0/24 network travel to reach the 10.0.0.0/8 network if RIP is the active routing protocol?

The path will be router A -> router D -> router E.



Which three routing protocols are distance vector routing protocols? (Choose three).

RIPv1

EIGRP

RIPv2



What is a routing loop?

a condition where a packet is constantly transmitted within a series of routers without ever reaching its intended destination



Which two conditions are most likely to cause a routing loop? (Choose two.)

inconsistent routing tables

incorrectly configured static routes



What metric does the RIP routing protocol consider to be infinity?

16



What does a router running RIP do first with a new route that is received from an advertisement?

adjusts the metric for the new route to show the added distance for the route



Refer to the exhibit. If all routers are using RIP, how many rounds of updates will occur before all routers know all networks?
3

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CCNA 2 - Module 1

If a router cannot find a valid configuration file during the startup sequence, what will occur?
The router will prompt the user for a response to enter setup mode.

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has configured the router with the interface IP addresses shown for the directly connected networks. Pings from the router to hosts on the connected networks or pings between router interfaces are not working. What is the most likely problem?
The interfaces must be enabled with the no shutdown command.

Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded from the routing table output in the exhibit? (Choose two.)
The FastEthernet0/0 and Serial0/0/0 interfaces of this router were configured with an IP address and the no shutdown command.
An IP packet received by this router with a destination address of 198.18.9.1 will be forwarded out of the Serial0/0/0 interface.

Refer to the exhibit. The frame shown in the exhibit was received by the router. The router interfaces are operational. How will the router process this frame? (Choose two.)
The router will change the frame type to one supported by the WAN link before forwarding the frame.
The frame was received on the Fa0/0 interface of the router and will be switched to the S0/0/0 interface.

Passwords can be used to restrict access to all or parts of the Cisco IOS. Select the modes and interfaces that can be protected with passwords. (Choose three.)
VTY interface
console interface
privileged EXEC mode

Which two statements correctly describe the components of a router? (Choose two.)
ROM contains diagnostics executed on hardware modules.
Flash memory does not lose its contents during a reboot.

Refer to the exhibit. After host 2 is connected to the switch on the LAN, host 2 is unable to communicate with host 1. What is the cause of this problem?
The subnet mask of host 2 is incorrect.
Host 1 and host 2 are on different networks.
The switch needs an IP address that is not configured.
The router LAN interface and host 1 are on different networks.
The IP address of host 1 is on a different network than is the LAN interface of the router.

Which are functions of a router? (Choose three.)
packet switching
segmentation of broadcast domains
selection of best path based on logical addressing

Refer to the exhibit. All routers have a route in its routing table to each network that is shown in the exhibit. Default routes have not been issued on these routers. What can be concluded about how packets are forwarded in this network? (Choose two.)
If RouterA receives a packet that is destined for 192.168.3.146, it will be forwarded out interface S0/0/1.
If RouterB receives a packet that is destined for 10.5.27.15, it will be forwarded out interface S0/0/1.

The serial connection shown in the graphic needs to be configured. Which configuration commands must be made on the Sydney router to establish connectivity with the Melbourne site? (Choose three.)
Sydney(config-if)# ip address 201.100.53.2 255.255.255.0
Sydney(config-if)# no shutdown
Sydney(config-if)# clock rate 56000

Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded from the output of the running-configuration of a router?
The commands that are displayed determine the current operation of the router.

Refer to the exhibit. Host A pings host B. When R4 accepts the ping into the Ethernet interface, what two pieces of header information are included? (Choose two.)
destination IP address: 192.168.10.134
destination MAC address: 9999.DADC.1234

What is the outcome of entering these commands?
R1(config)# line vty 0 4
R1(config-line)# password check123
R1(config-line)# login
sets the password to be used for connecting to this router via Telnet

Which of the following is the correct flow of routines for a router startup?
load bootstrap, load IOS, apply configuration

What three processes does a router execute when it receives a packet from one network that is destined for another network? (Choose three.)
decapsulates the Layer 3 packet by stripping off the Layer 2 frame header
uses the destination IP Address in the IP header to look up the next-hop address in the routing table
encapsulates the Layer 3 packet into the new Layer 2 frame and forwards it out the exit interface

The network administrator needs to connect two routers directly via their FastEthernet ports. What cable should the network administrator use?
cross-over
Which two statements describe characteristics of load balancing? (Choose two.)
Load balancing allows a router to forward packets over multiple paths to the same destination network.
Unequal cost load balancing is supported by EIGRP.

What information about the router and its startup process can be gathered from the output of the show version command? (Choose three.)
the last restart method
the configuration register settings
the location from where the IOS loaded

Which interfaces in the exhibit could be used for a leased line WAN connection? (Choose two.)
1
4

From what location can a router load the Cisco IOS during the boot process? (Choose two.)
TFTP server
Flash memory

A network administrator has just entered new configurations into Router1. Which command should be executed to save configuration changes to NVRAM?
Router1# copy running-config startup-config

What is the default sequence for loading the configuration file?
NVRAM, TFTP, CONSOLE

CCNA 2 - Module 2

Which of the following are displayed by the Router# show cdp neighbors command? (Choose three.)
platform
holdtime
local interface

Why is it advisable to enter a next-hop IP address when creating a static route whose exit interface is an Ethernet network?
In a multi-access network, the router cannot determine the next-hop MAC address for the Ethernet frame without a next-hop address.

The output of the Router# show interfaces serial 0/1 command displays the following:
Serial0/1 is up, line protocol is down.
What is the most likely cause for the line protocol being down?
No clock rate has been set.

A static route that points to the next hop IP will have what administrative distance and metric in the routing table?
administrative distance of 1 and metric of 0

Refer to the exhibit. What two commands will change the next-hop address for the 10.0.0.0/8 network from 172.16.40.2 to 192.168.1.2? (Choose two.)
A(config)# no ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 172.16.40.2
A(config)# ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 192.168.1.2

Refer to the exhibit. A company network engineer is assigned to establish connectivity between the two Ethernet networks so that hosts on the 10.1.1.0/24 subnet can contact hosts on the 10.1.2.0/24 subnet. The engineer has been told to use only static routing for these company routers. Which set of commands will establish connectivity between the two Ethernet networks?
R1(config)# ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.2R2(config)# ip route 10.1.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.1

Refer to the exhibit. Which static route should be configured on Router1 so that host A will be able to reach host B on the 172.16.0.0 network?
ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 S0/0/0

What address can be used to summarize networks 172.16.1.0/24, 172.16.2.0/24, 172.16.3.0/24, and 172.16.4.0/24?
172.16.0.0/21

Refer to the exhibit. What is the significance of the /8 in the route to the 10.0.0.0 network?
It indicates the number of consecutive bits, from the left, in the destination IP address of a packet that must match 10.0.0.0 to use that route.

What two devices are responsible for converting the data from the WAN service provider into a form acceptable by the router? (Choose two).
a modem
a CSU/DSU device

A network administrator enters the following command into Router1: ip route 192.168.0.0 255.255.255.0 S0/1/0. Router1 then receives a packet that is destined for 192.168.0.22/24. After finding the recently configured static route in the routing table, what does Router1 do next to process the packet?
encapsulates the packet into a frame for the WAN link and forwards the packet out the S0/1/0 interface

Which piece of information is available from examining the output of the command show ip interface brief?
Interface IP address

Which of the following is true regarding CDP and the graphic shown?
By default, Router A will receive CDP advertisements from routers B and C.

Which two statements describe functions or characteristics of CDP? (Choose two.)
It starts up automatically and allows the device to detect directly connected neighbor devices that use CDP.
It allows systems to learn about each other even if different network layer protocols are configured.

Hosts on two separate subnets cannot communicate. The network administrator suspects a missing route in one of the routing tables. Which three commands can be used to help troubleshoot Layer 3 connectivity issues? (Choose three.)
ping
traceroute
show ip route

What happens to a static route entry in a routing table when the outgoing interface is not available?
The route is removed from the table.

The routers in the diagram use the subnet assignments shown. What is the most efficient route summary that can be configured on Router3 to advertise the internal networks to the cloud?
192.1.1.0/25

Refer to the exhibit. How will packets destined to the 172.16.0.0 network be forwarded?
Router1 will perform recursive lookup and packet will exit S0/0.

A router has one static route to each destination network. Which two scenarios would require an administrator to alter the static routes that are configured on that router? (Choose two.)
The destination network no longer exists.
A topology change occurs where the existing next-hop address or exit interface is not accessible.

Refer to the exhibit. Given the output in the exhibit, how would a clock rate be determined for this link?
The rate configured on the DCE determines the clock rate.

Refer to the exhibit. Which set of commands will configure static routes that will allow the WinterPark and the Altamonte routers to deliver packets from each LAN and direct all other traffic to the Internet?
WinterPark(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.146.1Altamonte(config)# ip route 10.0.234.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.146.2Altamonte(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/1

CCNA 2 - Module 3

Which two statements correctly describe the concepts of administrative distance and metric? (Choose two.)

Administrative distance refers to the trustworthiness of a particular route.

Routes with the smallest metric to a destination indicate the best path.

Refer to the exhibit. Which statement correctly describes how R1 will determine the best path to R2?

R1 will install an EIGRP route using network B in its routing table because the administrative distance of EIGRP is lower than RIP.

Which two statements are true regarding classless routing protocols? (Choose two.)

sends subnet mask information in routing updates

allows for use of both 192.168.1.0/30 and 192.168.1.16/28 subnets in the same topology

Which command would the network administrator issue to determine if load balancing is in effect on a router?

show ip route

Which statement is true regarding routing protocols?

EIGRP uses DUAL to calculate the shortest path and can be configured to do unequal cost load balancing.

Which two conditions would create a setting where the use of a distance-vector routing protocol would be efficient? (Choose two.)

the network is using a hub and spoke topology

the network is using a flat design

What is the purpose of a routing protocol?

It allows a router to share information about known networks with other routers.

Which of the following best describes the operation of distance vector routing protocols?

They send their routing tables to directly connected neighbors.

Which of the following is associated with link-state routing protocols?

shortest-path first calculations

Why is fast convergence desirable in networks that use dynamic routing protocols?

Routers may make incorrect forwarding decisions until the network has converged.

Which of the following conditions must be met in order for a network to have converged

The routers in the network are operating with consistent routing knowledge.

Which two statements are true regarding metrics? (Choose two.)

EIGRP uses bandwidth as a metric.

OSPF uses cost based on bandwidth as a metric.

Which two statements are true regarding the advantages of the use of static routes? (Choose two).

increased security

the administrator maintains control over routing

The following line of code is displayed in a routing table:
R 209.165.201.0/24 [120/2] via 192.168.252.2, 00:00:16, S0/0/0
What can be concluded from this output?

The value, 120, is used to determine the best path when a router has more than one routing protocol configured for the same destination network.

What will be the result of the following commands?
ORL(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0
ORL(config-if)# ip address 172.16.3.1 255.255.255.0
ORL(config-if)# no shutdown

A routing table entry is made to the 172.16.3.0 network with a code of "C".

An engineer creates a static route by entering the Router(config)# ip route 10.0.0.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.1.2 command. What can be concluded about this route?

The administrative distance of this route is 1.

Refer to the exhibit. Router1 and Router2 are running EIGRP. All interfaces are operational and packets can be forwarded between all networks. What information will be found in the routing table for Router1?

The administrative distance of the route to network 172.16.0.0 will be 90.

The following line of code is present in the routing table:
O 10.16.1.0/27 [110/129] via 192.168.1.5, 00:00:05, Serial0/0/1
What does the number 129 indicate in this output?

The cost for this link has a value of 129.

A growing medium-sized manufacturing company recently began to have routing instability issues. The company uses static routes and has a mixture of over 30 Cisco and non-Cisco routers. The network administrator has decided to convert the network to dynamic routing. What characteristics of protocols should be considered in this selection process?

OSPF can be used between the routers.

Refer to the exhibit. If RIP is the routing protocol, what is the value of the metric from router A to network 192.168.5.0/24?

3

A router learns two paths with equal metrics to a destination network via the RIP routing protocol. How will the router handle packets to the destination network?

CCNA 2 - Module 5

Refer to the exhibit. The network that is shown is running RIPv1. The 192.168.10.0/24 network was recently added and will only contain end users. What command or set of commands should be entered on Router1 to prevent RIPv1 updates from being sent to the end user devices on the new network while still allowing this new network to be advertised to other routers?

CCNA 2 - Module 6

CCNA 2 - Module 7

CCNA 2 - Module 8

CCNA 2 - Module 9

On a router running EIGRP, what database would maintain a list of feasible successors?

topology table

Refer to the exhibit. This is the debug output from 2 directly connected EIGRP routers. They are not forming an adjacency. What is the cause?

network 192.168.1.64 0.0.0.3

What two actions will the EIGRP DUAL FSM take if a link to a network goes down? (Choose two.)

query neighbors for a new route

search topology table for a feasible successor

Refer to the exhibit. What is indicated by the P at the beginning of the topology entry?

the route is in a stable state

In which of the following tables does the EIGRP DUAL algorithm store the primary route to a destination? (Choose two.)

routing

topology

What information is maintained in the EIGRP topology database for a destination route? (Choose three.)

the routing protocol

the feasible distance of the route

the route cost as advertised by the neighboring router

Which of the following statements describes the bounded updates used by EIGRP?

Partial updates are sent only to routers that need the information.

Which of the following types of routes will be denoted by EX in EIGRP routing table entries? (Choose two.)

routes learned from other routing protocols

EIGRP routes that originate in different autonomous systems

Host 192.168.1.66 in the network illustrated is unable to ping host 192.168.1.130. How must EIGRP be configured to enable connectivity between the two hosts? (Choose two.)

R1(config-router)# no auto-summary

R2(config-router)# no auto-summary

Which two statements describe characteristics of EIGRP? (Choose two.)

EIGRP is a distance vector routing protocol.

EIGRP supports classless routing and VLSM.

Refer to the exhibit. Based on the output of show ip eigrp neighbors, what are two possible problems with adjacencies between Router1 and Router2? (Choose two.)

The routers are configured with different EIGRP process IDs.

The serial interfaces for both routers are in different networks.

Refer to the exhibit. In the topology table, what do the numbers 3011840 and 3128695 represent?

the total metric for that network as advertised by the EIGRP neighbor

Refer to the exhibit. EIGRP is the only routing protocol enabled on this network. No static routes are configured on this router. What can be concluded about network 198.18.1.0/24 from the exhibited output?

Packets that are destined for 198.18.1.0/24 will be forwarded to 198.18.10.6.

Refer to the exhibit. All interfaces have been configured with the bandwidths that are shown in the exhibit. Assuming that all routers are using a default configuration of EIGRP as their routing protocol, what path will packets take from the 172.16.1.0/16 network to the 192.168.200.0/24 network?

A,B,E

By default, which two metrics are used by EIGRP to determine the best path between networks?

delay

bandwidth

Which term defines a collection of networks under the administrative control of a single entity that presents a common routing policy to the Internet?

autonomous system

Refer to the exhibit. The company is using EIGRP with an autonomous system number of 10. Pings between hosts on networks that are connected to router A and those that are connected to router B are successful. However, users on the 192.168.3.0 network are unable to reach users on the 192.168.1.32 network. What is the most likely cause of this problem?

The routers are not configured in the same EIGRP routing domain.

In the command router eigrp 20, what is the purpose of the number 20?

identifies the autonomous system number this EIGRP process will advertise

The show ip eigrp topology command output on a router displays a successor route and a feasible successor route to network 192.168.1.0/24. In order to reduce processor utilization, what does EIGRP do when the primary route to this network fails?

The backup route to network 192.168.1.0/24 is installed in the routing table.

What administrative distance would a router assign to a default route in EIGRP that is learned from a source external to the autonomous system?

170

Refer to the exhibit. Network 192.168.0.0/28 goes down. What type of packet does Router2 immediately send to Router1 and Router3?

CCNA 2 - Module 10

Refer to the exhibit. When Router D is configured to use a link-state routing protocol and is added to the network, what is the first thing that it does to begin learning the network topology?

It learns about its directly connected networks when its interfaces reach the up state.

What two events will cause a link state router to send LSPs to all neighbors? (Choose two.)

whenever the network topology changes

upon initial startup of router or routing protocol

What is the final step in the link state routing process?

SPF computes best path to each destination network

What two statements correctly describe the link state routing process? (Choose two.)

each router in the area floods LSPs to all neighbors

all routers in the area have identical link state databases

Refer to the exhibit. What kind of information would be seen in an LSP sent from router JAX to router ATL?

cost of the link

What feature do modern link-state protocols provide to minimize processing and memory requirements?

splitting routing topologies into smaller areas

To achieve network convergence, what three steps does each link state router take? (Choose three.)

build a Link State Packet (LSP) containing the state of each directly connected link

flood the LSP to all neighbors, who then store all LSPs received in a database

construct a complete map of the topology and compute the best path to each destination network

What speeds up convergence in a network using link-state routing?

updates triggered by network changes

Why is it difficult for routing loops to occur in networks that use link-state routing?

Each router builds a complete and synchronized view of the network.

What are some of the advantages of using a link-state routing protocol instead of a distance vector routing protocol? (Choose two.)

Routers have direct knowledge of all links in the network and how they are connected.

After the inital LSA flooding, they generally require less bandwidth to communicate changes in a topology.

Which algorithm is run by link-state routing protocols to calculate the shortest path to destination networks?

Dijkstra

Refer to the exhibit. Which statement correctly describes the path traffic would take from the 10.0.0.0/24 network to the 192.168.1.0/24 network if a link-state routing protocol was in use?

BOS -> ORL -> JAX -> ATL because this path is the lowest cost

Which database or table must be identical on all link-state routers within an area in order to construct an accurate SPF tree?

link-state database

Which two routing protocols use Dijkstra’s shortest path first algorithm? (Choose two.)

IS-IS

OSPF

When are link-state packets sent to neighbors?

when a link goes up or down

Refer to the exhibit. What does JAX do with link-state packets from ORL?

sends out the individual link-state packets out the interface connected to BOS

A new network administrator is given the task of selecting an appropriate dynamic routing protocol for a software development company. The company has over 100 routers, uses CIDR and VLSM, requires fast convergence, and uses both Cisco and non-Cisco equipment. Which routing protocol is appropriate for this company?

OSPF

What action does a link-state router take immediately upon receipt of an LSP from a neighboring router?

floods the LSP to neighbors

Refer to the exhibit. If all routers and interfaces are configured to use a link-state routing protocol, from which routers will router D receive hello packets?

CCNA 2 - Module 11

Refer to the exhibit. What does the "O*E2" from the "O*E2 0.0.0.0/0 [110/1] via 192.168.1.1, 00:05:34, Serial0/0" line represent?

an external OSPF route that will not increment in cost.

Refer to the exhibit. What is the cost of the route to the 10.0.0.0 network?

1786

What three parameters must be indentical between OSPF routers in order to form an adjacency? (Choose three.)

area id

hello interval

network type

What does OSPF use to reduce the number of exchanges of routing information in networks where large numbers of neighbors are present? (Choose two.)

designated router

backup designated router

What does OSPF use to calculate the cost to a destination network?

bandwidth

A fully converged five router OSPF network has been running successfully for several weeks. All configurations have been saved and no static routes are used. If one router looses power and reboots, what information will be in its routing table after the configuration file is loaded but before OSPF has converged?

Routes for connected networks that are operational will be in the routing table.

Refer to the exhibit. Router A is correctly configured for OSPF. Which OSPF configuration statement or set of statements was entered for router B to generate the exhibited routing table?

B(config-router)# network 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.3 area 0

Refer to the exhibit. Which network command or set of sommands will cause OSPF to be enabled to send and receive packets for any R1 interface in the exhibited subnets?

R1(config-router)# network 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 area 0

Refer to the exhibit. What does the "2" stand for in the router ospf 2 statement?

The number 2 identifies this particular instance of OSPF on this router.

Refer to the exhibit. All routers have been configured with the interface priorities that are shown. All routers were restarted simultaneously. The results of the DR/BDR election are shown. What can be concluded about this network?

The highest router ID was most likely determined via an OSPF router-id statement or statements.

Refer to the exhibit. What configuration statements would give the results that are shown in the output of the show ip protocols command?

B(config)# router ospf 1
B(config-router)# router-id 192.168.1.5

Refer to the exhibit. How many OSPF adjacencies must be formed to build the complete topology if a DR or BDR were not elected in this OSPF network?

6

What is the default administrative distance for OSPF?

110

Refer to the exhibit. Routers A, B, C, and D are all running OSPF with default router IDs and OSPF interface priorities. Loopback interfaces are not configured and all interfaces are operational. Router D is the DR and router C is the BDR.
What happens immediately after the following commands are entered on router A?

A(config)# interface fa0/0

A(config-if)# ip ospf priority 255

D will remain the DR. C will remain the BDR.

Refer to the exhibit. All routers are running OSPF. What cost would JAX put in its routing table for the 10.0.0.0/24 network?

1787

What range of networks will be advertised in the OSPF updates by the command Router1(config-router)# network 192.168.0.0 0.0.15.255 area 100?

192.168.0.0/24 through 192.168.15.0/24

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator wants to set the router ID of Router1 to 192.168.100.1. What steps must the administrator take to accomplish this?

nothing, the router-id of Router1 is already 192.168.100.1

Refer to the exhibit. When OSPF is operational in the exhibited network, what neighbor relationship is developed between Router1 and Router2?

A FULL adjacency is formed.

Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that the routers have default interface OSPF priorities and no configured loopback interfaces, what two roles will router B play on each network segment? (Choose two.)

DR for network 192.168.1.200

BDR for network 192.168.1.204

Refer to the exhibit. Router1 and Router2 are running OSPF. The show ip ospf neighbor command reveals no neighbors. What is a possible cause?

OSPF hello or dead timers do not match.

Refer to the exhibit. Which command sequence on RouterB will redistribute a gateway of last resort to the other routers in OSPF area 0?

RouterB(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.6.6
RouterB(config)# router ospf 10
RouterB(config-router)# default-information originate

Refer to the exhibit. RouterA, RouterB, and RouterC in the diagram are running OSPF on their Ethernet interfaces. Router D was just added to the network. Routers are configured with the loopback interfaces (Lo 0) that are shown in the exhibit. What happens to the OSPF DR/BDR after RouterD is added to the network?

There is no change in the DR or BDR until either current DR or BDR goes down.

Which two statements describe the use of OSPF DR/BDR elections? (Choose two.)

Elections are required in broadcast multiaccess networks.

Elections are required in non-broadcast multiaccess networks.

Refer to the exhibit. The routers in the exhibit are using default OSPF configuration settings to advertise all attached networks. If all of the routers start at the same time, what will be the result of the DR and BDR elections for this single area OSPF network? (Choose three.)

Router A will be DR for 10.4.0.0/16.

HQ will be BDR for 10.4.0.0/16.

Remote will be DR for 10.5.0.0/16.

Refer to the exhibit. What must be received between neighbors to prevent the dead time that is shown in the exhibit from reaching zero?

http://cid-e57ea24b11aba5da.skydrive.live.com/self.aspx/Public/SKILL_Se1.rar

CCNA 1 - Module 2

CCNA 1 - Module 3

CCNA 1 - Module 4







1
Refer to the exhibit. What two pieces of information can be determined from the output that is shown? (Choose two.)
The local host is using well-known port numbers to identify the source ports.
**A termination request has been sent to 192.135.250.10.
Communication with 64.100.173.42 is using HTTP Secure.
**The local computer is accepting HTTP requests.
192.168.1.101:1042 is performing the three-way handshake with 128.107.229.50:80.


2
After a web browser makes a request to a web server that is listening to the standard port, what will be the source port number in the TCP header of the response from the server?
13
53
**80
1024
1728


3
Which information is found in both the TCP and UDP header information?
sequencing
flow control
**acknowledgments
source and destination


4
Which is an important characteristic of UDP?
acknowledgement of data delivery
**minimal delays in data delivery
high reliability of data delivery
same order data delivery


5
Refer to the exhibit. Host A is using FTP to download a large file from Server 1. During the download process, Server 1 does not receive an acknowledgment from Host A for several bytes of transferred data. What action will Server 1 take as a result?
create a Layer 1 jam signal
**reach a timeout and resend the data that needs to be acknowledged
send a RESET bit to the host
change the window size in the Layer 4 header


6
Refer to the exhibit. In line 7 of this Wireshark capture, what TCP operation is being performed?
**session establishment
segment retransmit
data transfer
session disconnect


7
Refer to the exhibit. The initial TCP exchange of data between two hosts is shown in the exhibit. Assuming an initial sequence number of 0, what sequence number will be included in Acknowledgment 2 if Segment 6 is lost?
2
3
6
**1850
3431
3475


8
Why is flow control used for TCP data transfer?
to synchronize equipment speed for sent data
to synchronize and order sequence numbers so data is sent in complete numerical order
**to prevent the receiver from being overwhelmed by incoming data
to synchronize window size on the server
to simplify data transfer to multiple hosts


9
During a TCP communication session, if the packets arrive to the destination out of order, what will happen to the original message?
The packets will not be delivered.
The packets will be retransmitted from the source.
**The packets will be delivered and reassembled at the destination.
The packets will be delivered and not reassembled at the destination.


10
With TCP/IP data encapsulation, which range of port numbers identifies all well-known applications?
0 to 255
256 to 1022
**0 to 1023
1024 to 2047
49153 to 65535


11
Which transport layer protocol provides low overhead and would be used for applications which do not require reliable data delivery?
TCP
IP
**UDP
HTTP
DNS


12
What are two features of the User Datagram Protocol (UDP)? (Choose two.)
**flow control
**low overhead
connectionless
connection-oriented
sequence and acknowledgements


13
What mechanism is used by TCP to provide flow control as segments travel from source to destination?
sequence numbers
session establishment
**window size
acknowledgments


14
What is dynamically selected by the source host when forwarding data?
destination logical address
source physical address
default gateway address
**source port


15
Why are port numbers included in the TCP header of a segment?
to indicate the correct router interface that should be used to forward a segment
to identify which switch ports should receive or forward the segment
to determine which Layer 3 protocol should be used to encapsulate the data
**to enable a receiving host to forward the data to the appropriate application
to allow the receiving host to assemble the packet in the proper order


16
Which two options represent Layer 4 addressing? (Choose two.)
identifies the destination network
**identifies source and destination hosts
identifies the communicating applications
**identifies multiple conversations between the hosts
identifies the devices communicating over the local media


17
Which three features allow TCP to reliably and accurately track the transmission of data from source to destination?
**encapsulation
flow control
connectionless services
**session establishment
**numbering and sequencing
best effort delivery


18
Which OSI model layer is responsible for regulating the flow of information from source to destination, reliably and accurately?
application
presentation
session
**transport
network


19
Based on the transport layer header shown in the diagram, which of the following statements describe the established session? (Choose two.)
This is a UDP header.
**This contains a Telnet request.
This contains a TFTP data transfer.
The return packet from this remote host will have an Acknowledgement Number of 43693.
**This is a TCP header.


20
Which event occurs during the transport layer three-way handshake?
The two applications exchange data.
TCP initializes the sequence numbers for the sessions.
**UDP establishes the maximum number of bytes to be sent.
The server acknowledges the bytes of data received from the client.

CCNA 1 - Module 5