CISCO CCNA Certifications

CCNA4 v4.0 download(updated 19/7/2008)

CCNA Discovery 4 Module 9 Scored 77%
1
Upon completion of a proposal, a network design team must sell their ideas to two key stakeholders. Who are these two stakeholders? (Choose two.)

Customers***

licensing boards

cabling contractors***

internal management

project implementation team



2
NetworkingCompany completes the installation of a network upgrade for a retail customer. All of the onsite tests complete successfully and the customer IT staff approves the results of the tests. The manager of the retail store contacts NetworkingCompany to inform the company that the store will not pay for the upgrade until a recently purchased software package is installed and tested on the network. Which two items that are contained in the proposal can the account manager refer to when discussing this issue with the store manager? (Choose two.)

the project scope***

the bill-of-material

the project timeline***

the terms and conditions

the business goals of the customer

the evaluation of the current network



3
Which proposal section describes the intended routing protocol, security mechanisms, and addressing for the planned network?

logical design***

physical design

executive summary

implementation plan

network requirements



4
In order to finalize a project proposal, an account manager of a networking company creates the terms and conditions section. What are two clauses that should be included in this section? (Choose two.)

cost summary***

installation steps

change order procedures***

problem resolution process

maintenance contract quotation



5
A company informs the account manager that the installation of a new edge router at the customer remote branch location cannot be done at the scheduled time because of a large order that the branch office needs to complete. As a result, the end date of the project must be adjusted to accommodate the additional time. What is the action should the account manager take?

Cancel the order for the new edge router.

Work with designer to redesign the branch network.

Instruct the technician to complete the install of the router at on the date in the contract.

Adjust the timeline documentation to show the company how the delay will affect the project completion date.***



6
Which statement describes a phased installation into an existing network?

A phased installation generally takes less time and expense than a green-field installation.

A phased installation is not suitable for large, multi-site network installations or upgrades.

A phased installation requires detailed planning in order to avoid disruption of user services.***

A phased installation involves building an entire replacement network and migrating users over to it.



7
The NetworkingCompany team is tasked to prepare an implementation schedule for a customer. It is determined that the new firewalls and wireless controllers that are specified in the design cannot be delivered and installed within the agreed upon time frame. The NetworkingCompany informs the customer of the problem. What two options can the NetworkingCompany team take to ensure the success of the project? (Choose two.)

plan to add additional staff and resources to shorten the installation time after the new equipment is delivered***

eliminate redundancy in the design to reduce the amount of equipment that is needed

renegotiate a new time frame with the customer to accommodate the delay***

delay the installation of the security devices and controllers until a later time

redesign the network to use only readily available equipment and software



8
A network installation team is assigned to replace all core switches in an existing data center. No other upgrades are planned. Which kind of installation is this?

a new installation

a fork-lift installation

a phased installation***

a green field installation



9
What two items are typically included in the executive summary of a proposal? (Choose two.)

project scope summary***

high-level implementation plan

quotes for all needed equipment

technical requirements for the design

emphasis on the benefits that meet the goals of the customer***



10
Included in a Bill of Materials (BOM) for a SOHO wired implementation is a Cisco 2811 router, Catalyst 2560 switch, four PCs, three laptops, and a networked printer. Wireless LAN capability will be implemented on this network. Which two equipment types must be added to the BOM to implement this request? (Choose two.)

DNS server

LAN switch ***

wireless NICs

DHCP server

wireless access points***



11
An upgraded version of the Cisco IOS has been purchased. However, the CD arrived damaged. How will this loss be covered?

a hardware warranty

a software warranty

the Cisco SMARTnet Service***

an additional service contract



12
The operation of a new branch location network is delayed because a VPN cannot be configured and established between the branch location and the main office. It is determined that the router at the main office does not have enough memory and does not have the correct Cisco IOS version image to support the VPN features. To prevent this delay, this problem should have been identified and corrected during which part of the design project?

the preparation of the business case

the prioritizing of the technical goals

the characterization of the existing network***

the implementation of the approved design



13
AAA Financial Services Company is performing implementation planning for a core switch upgrade. The company has 200 financial software programmers that work billable hours during the week. They have critical, scheduled money transfer transmissions that occur at hourly intervals every night. There are two, two-hour long IT maintenance windows scheduled for software upgrades, one on Saturday and one on Sunday. The bank advertises online banking as available 24 hours on business days and 21 hours on the weekends. However, a network upgrade that is necessary to replace some switches is expected to take four hours. Because of rack constraints, this time includes three hours to remove the old switches before the new switches can be installed and one hour to test the logical configuration. How should the implementation scheduling be handled?

Defer the software upgrades. Use the Saturday window to perform the hardware installation. Use the Sunday window to perform the logical testing.

Coordinate and publish a separate four-hour downtime during Friday to perform the complete switch installation and testing process. Use the Saturday and Sunday windows to correct any outage problems after the Friday window.

Coordinate and publish two, four-hour downtimes incorporating the published Saturday and Sunday windows. Defer any software upgrades until the new network is proven to be working correctly with the old software. Use the Sunday window as a fallback scheduling period if there are problems necessitating backing out of the Saturday window.

Coordinate and publish an eight-hour downtime incorporating the Saturday window. This will allow four hours for installation and logical testing, one hour for troubleshooting and decision, and three hours to roll back to the previous configuration if the new switching cannot pass the logical testing. Defer any software upgrades until the new network is proven to be working correctly with the old software. ****



14
A customer has just taken delivery of a Cisco 2811 router and Catalyst 3560 switch. Included with the purchase is the SMARTnet Service. Which two resources are included with SMARTnet Service? (Choose two.)

signature file updates

technical support from TAC***

maintenance releases for OS

software application major releases***

software application maintenance and minor releases



15
What service is provided Cisco standard warranty?

software application maintenance

replacement of defected hardware***

next business day delivery of replacement parts

access to the Cisco Technical Assistance Center (TAC) 24 hours a day, 7 days a week



16
What are two important guidelines when creating a slide presentation for a meeting with a customer? (Choose two.)

Use all capital letters on words and phrases when possible for added emphasis.

Provide varied background graphics to enhance viewer interest.

Use contrasting colors for background and text to aid visibility.***

Change fonts frequently to denote differences in subject matter.

Use bulleted text to lead the discussion.****



17
Which two statements describe factors that influence the layout of a proposal? (Choose two.)

Proposal layouts are required to use sans serif typefaces.

A specific proposal layout is followed when one is specified in the RFP. ***

A designer chooses the layout if a written RFP does not specify an outline.***

The software that is used to create the proposal dictates the proposal layouts.

Proposal layouts are required to use a format that is designed by the network engineer.



18
Which occurrence would indicate a failure of the design phase?

The incorrect model switches were ordered.

There is no customer signoff for task completion.

New requirements are identified after implementation begins.

The new network capacity is inadequate to support required traffic.***



19
Which two items will a systems engineer include in an implementation plan? (Choose two.)

references to design documents

the business goals of the customer***

diagrams of the existing traffic flows***

the steps to install and test the network

cost of each network device and component



20
A Cisco 1841 router has been purchased without an agreement for SMARTnet Service. What two items are guaranteed under the standard warranty? (Choose two.)

access to TAC

replacement of defective physical media***

advanced replacement of hardware parts

access to a renewable standard warranty contract

under normal use, replacement of defective hardware***

CCNA4 v4.0 download(updated 19/7/2008)

1
Why is it important to record baseline measurements of a prototype network?

Test results show security weaknesses after the baseline tests are run.

The baseline is the point at which the network is operating at its fullest potential.

Baseline measurements define a point at which network traffic has exceeded the designed capabilities of the network.

Test results are compared to the baseline to see how the test conditions increase processor use or decrease available bandwidth.*****



2


Refer to the exhibit. During prototype testing, verification of VLAN connectivity is being performed. Based on the information shown, what command produced the output?

show spanning-tree

show interfaces trunk********

show cdp neighbors

show interfaces

show ip interface brief



3
How do designers decide which network functions need to be included in the prototype test?

They select the functions that align with the business goals.******

They select the functions that occur at the network core.

They select the functions that do not exist in the existing network.

They select the functions from a list of generic network operations.



4


Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has been given the task of creating a design for a temporary classroom building that is to be set up outside an overcrowded school. In testing the prototype, it is found that the student PC cannot ping the teacher PC. All the switch interfaces are active and connected properly, as is interface Fa0/0 of the router. Given that only the commands shown have been added to the router configuration, what is the source of the problem?

The IP settings on the student PC are incorrect.*******

The default gateway on the teacher PC is misconfigured.

The router Fa0/0 interface has not been configured as a VLAN trunk.

The Fa0/0 physical interface has not been configured with an IP address and subnet mask.

The administrator forgot to configure a routing protocol to allow the ping packets to reach the teacher PC subnet.



5


Refer to the exhibit. What two measures can be taken to address the areas of weakness circled in the network design? (Choose two.)

Provide redundant connections to all end users.

Add another core switch to increase redundancy.

Add a switch in the server block connecting the server farm to each core switch.*******

Add an additional switch to the DMZ and direct links from the new switch to the core switches.

Provide a redundant firewall router connecting to a second ISP, the core switches, and the DMZ.*******



6


Refer to the exhibit. After all the interfaces have stabilized, what is the spanning-tree state of all the enabled interfaces of SW11?

discarding

Forwarding****

learning

listening



7
A network engineer has decided to pilot test a portion of a new network design rather than rely on a prototype for proof-of-concept. What are two advantages of pilot testing a design concept? (Choose two.)

The test network experiences real-world network traffic.*********

Users within the enterprise are not affected by the test.

Network response can be tested in unplanned and unpredictable situations.*********

Unlikely failure conditions can be conveniently tested.

Network response can be tested in a highly controlled simulated environment.



8


Refer to the exhibit. During prototype testing of the Cisco network shown, connectivity must be verified. Assuming all connections are working and CDP is enabled on all devices and interfaces, on which device was the command issued?

R1********

S1

R3

S2

R5

S3



9
Switch port Fa0/24 was previously configured as a trunk, but now it is to be used to connect a host to the network. How should the network administrator reconfigure switch port Fa0/24?

Use the switchport mode access command from interface configuration mode.

Enter the switchport nonegotiate command from interface configuration mode.

Administratively shut down and re-enable the interface to return it to the default.

Enter the no switchport mode trunk command in interface configuration mode.*****

Use the switchport access vlanvlan number command from interface configuration mode to remove the port from the trunk and add it to a specific VLAN.



10


Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is performing an initial installation of a new switch in the east wing. The technician removes the switch from the box, makes the connections to the network, and adds the configuration shown. The technician notifies the network administrator that the switch has been installed. When the network administrator at the home office attempts to telnet to the switch from host 192.168.0.1, the connection fails. What action should the network technician take?

Add an enable password to the switch.

Add a default gateway to the switch configuration.*********

Configure the switch with an IP access list to permit the host connection.

Enable the physical interfaces of the switch with the no shutdown command.



11


Refer to the exhibit. The redundant paths are of equal bandwidth and EIGRP is the routing protocol in use. Which statement describes the data flow from Server to PC2?

EIGRP load balances across the R3 to R1 and R3 to R2 links. **********

EIGRP load balances across the R1 to Switch3 and R2 to Switch3 paths.

EIGRP load balances across the Switch1 to Switch3 and Switch1 to Switch2 paths.

EIGRP does not load balance in this topology.



12
In the router command encapsulation dot1q 10, what does the number 10 represent?

the metric used for a particular route

the number of the VLAN associated with the encapsulated subinterface*********

the priority number given to the device for the election process

the number that must match the Fast Ethernet subinterface number

the number used to program the router for unequal cost path load balancing



13
Which protocol allows a switch port to transition directly to the forwarding state after a failure is detected?

STP********

BGP

RSTP

HSRP



14
A network designer needs to determine if a proposed IP addressing scheme allows efficient route summarization and provides the appropriate amount of scalability to a design. What is useful for validating a proposed hierarchical IP addressing scheme?

NBAR

a pilot network

a route summary

a network simulator********

a physical topology map



15


Refer to the exhibit. A network designer creates a test plan that includes the specification shown. In which section of the test plan would this specification be found?

Test Description

Test Procedures

Design and Topology Diagram

Actual Results and Conclusions

Anticipated Results and Success Criteria***********



16
While preparing a network test plan document, a network designer records all initial and modified device configurations. Which section of the document typically contains this information?

Appendix*******

Test Procedures

Test Description

Actual Results and Conclusions

Anticipated Results and Success Criteria



17


Refer to the exhibit. The users on the 192.168.10.192 network are not allowed Internet access. The network design calls for an extended ACL to be developed and tested. Where should the ACL be placed for the least effect on other network traffic?

inbound on Fa0/0 of R3

outbound on Fa0/0 of R3

inbound on Fa0/1 of R3

outbound on Fa0/1 of R3*******

inbound on Fa0/1 of R2

outbound on S0/0 of R2



18


Refer to the exhibit. Why are interfaces Fa0/11, Fa0/23, and Fa0/24 not shown in this switch output?

Interfaces Fa0/11, Fa0/23, and Fa0/24 are trunks.********

Interfaces Fa0/11, Fa0/23, and Fa0/24 are shutdown.

Interfaces Fa0/11, Fa0/23, and Fa0/24 are blocking.

Interfaces Fa0/11, Fa0/23, and Fa0/24 failed diagnostics.



19
What OSI model Layer 2 security measure can a network engineer implement when prototyping network security?

a firewall at the network edge

port security at the access design layer**********

port security at the distribution design layer

IP access control lists at the access design layer



20


Refer to the exhibit. During prototyping, Layer 2 functionality is being tested. Based on the output shown, which two pieces of information can be determined? (Choose two.)

Switch1 is the root bridge.

Interface Fa0/2 on Switch1 has no role in the operation of spanning tree.

Interface Fa0/2 on Switch1 is the alternate port used to reach the root bridge.****

Based on the entries in the "Role" column, it can be concluded that RSTP has been implemented.****

Interface Fa0/1 on Switch1 is the forwarding port selected for the entire spanning-tree topology.



21
What Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP) state is given to the forwarding port elected for every switched Ethernet LAN segment?

root

backup

alternate

Designated*******

CCNA4 v4.0 download(updated 19/7/2008)

1
Refer to the exhibit. The IT management has determined that the new subnet for WGROUP3 needs to be broken down into four more subnets. What would the subnet mask be for the four newly created subnets within WGROUP3?

255.255.128.0

255.255.192.0

255.255.224.0

255.255.248.0*****

255.255.252.0

255.255.255.0



2
A network administrator is using the 10.0.0.0/8 network for the company. The administrator must create a masking scheme to support 750 users at the main office and 620 users at the remote office. What mask should be assigned to the 10.0.0.0/8 network to preserve the most addresses?

255.255.255.0

/19

/20

255.255.252.0*****

/23

/21



3


Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator wants router RTA to send only the summarized route of 10.10.0.0/16 to RTC. Which configuration accomplishes this?

RTA(config)# interface s0/0
RTA(config-if)# ip summary-address eigrp 101 10.10.0.0 255.255.0.0
RTA(config-if)# exit
RTA(config)# router eigrp 101
RTA(config-router)# no auto-summary

RTA(config)# interface s0/1
RTA(config-if)# ip summary-address eigrp 101 10.10.0.0 255.255.0.0
RTA(config-if)# exit
RTA(config)# router eigrp 101
RTA(config-router)# no auto-summary*******

RTA(config)# interface s0/0
RTA(config-if)# ip summary-address eigrp 101 10.10.0.0 255.255.0.0

RTA(config)# interface s0/1
RTA(config-if)# ip summary-address eigrp 101 10.10.0.0 255.255.0.0



4
When should the command no auto-summary be used?

with RIP version 1, to enable classless routing

with RIP version 2, to enable classless routing

with RIP version 1, when discontigous networks exist

with RIP version 2, when discontigous networks exist******



5
After activating IPv6 traffic forwarding, configuring IPv6 addresses, and globally configure RIPng, what is the remaining step to activate RIPng?

Enter the ipv6 router rip name command and then use network statements to activate RIPng on the interfaces.

Enter the ipv6 router rip name command and then specify which interfaces run RIPng, which are passive, and which only receive.

Enter the interface mode for each IPv6 interface and enable RIPng with the ipv6 ripnameenable command.************

Enter the interface mode for each IPv6 interface and enable the multicast group FF02::9, and then activate RIPng globally using the ipv6 router rip name command.

Enter the router rip command, and then activate RIPng using the version command. RIPng then automatically runs on all IPv6 interfaces.



6


Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that the default EIGRP configuration is running on both routers, which statement is true about Router A reaching the 2.2.2.0/24 network?

The no auto-summary command needs to be issued to disable automatic summarization.*****

The network 2.2.2.0 command needs to be issued to ensure that Router A recognizes the 2.2.2.0 network.

EIGRP supports VLSM and automatically recognizes the 2.2.2.0 network.

EIGRP does not support VLSM; therefore it cannot be used with discontiguous networks.



7


Refer to the exhibit. What are the broadcast addresses for each subnet?

Admin - 172.16.31.0
QA - 172.16.1.127
Development - 172.16.2.255
Sales - 172.16.32.255

Admin - 172.16.31.255
QA - 172.16.1.255
Development - 172.16.3.255
Sales - 172.16.63.255

Admin - 172.16.31.255
QA - 172.16.1.127
Development - 172.16.3.255
Sales - 172.16.63.255***********

Admin - 172.16.31.0
QA - 172.16.1.255
Development - 172.16.2.255
Sales - 172.16.32.255



8


Refer to the exhibit. What is the first usable IP address that can be assigned to the WGROUP3 switch?

172.16.50.96/27

172.16.50.97/27**************

172.16.50.98/27

172.16.50.99/27



9
Which statement describes MD5 authentication for neighbor authentication?

All passwords are sent in clear text when neighbors first learn about each other.

Only the initiating router sends its password using encrypted text when it first discovers a new router.

All routers send their password using encrypted text only when they first learn of each other.

All routers send their password using encrypted text each time they exchange update packets.************



10
What is a good design practice when developing a hierarchical addressing scheme?

Address the nodes in the Access Layer and work toward the Core Layer.

Assign addresses to the Core devices before planning the addressing scheme for the server farm.

Determine where statically configured addressing will be implemented. ******

Determine what percentage of devices are wired and what percentage of devices are wireless.



11


Refer to the exhibit. Which set of router commands is required to turn on unequal-cost load sharing so that RTRA selects the path A-B-E and the lowest cost path A-C-E to the Internet?

RTRA(config)# router eigrp 1
RTRA(config-router)# variance 2***************

RTRA(config)# router eigrp 1
RTRA(config-router)# variance 1

RTRA(config)# router eigrp 1
RTRA(config-router)# maximum-paths 2

RTRA(config)# router eigrp 1
RTRA(config-router)# maximum-paths 1



12
How would the routes for networks 172.16.1.0/24, 172.16.3.0/24, and 172.16.15.0/24 be summarized?

172.16.0.0/20

172.16.0.0/21*************

172.16.0.0/22

172.16.0.0/24



13
How many bits make up an IPv6 address?

32

48

64

128************



14
A network engineer researched whether there are mechanisms available to help with the transition from an IPv4 addressing structure to IPv6. What three options did the engineer find? (Choose three.)

A protocol translation mechanism allows communication between the IPv4 and IPv6 networks.************

A packet analyzer determines the addressing structure and converts it to the appropriate IPv4 or IPv6 scheme.

New Core devices that support IPV6 must be purchased.

A protocol converter changes IPv4 packets into IPv6 packets and vice versa.

A dual-stack network design allows both IPv4 and IPv6 addressing to be used on all network devices.***********

Tunneling allows IPv4 packets to be encapsulated so that they can traverse IPv6 networks and vice versa.**********



15
A network administrator is asked to design a new addressing scheme for a corporate network. Presently, there are 850 users at the head office, 220 users at sales, 425 at manufacturing, and 50 at the research site. Which statement defines the correct VLSM addressing map with minimal waste using the 172.17.0.0/16 network?

172.17.0.0/20 head office
172.17.1.0/21 manufacturing
172.17.1.0/22 sales
172.17.3.0/26 research

172.17.48.0/19 head office
172.17.16.0/20 manufacturing
172.17.48.128/25 sales
172.17.48.0/26 research

172.17.0.0/22 head office
172.17.4.0/23 manufacturing
172.17.5.0/24 sales
172.17.6.0/26 research************

172.17.2.0/22 head office
172.17.3.0/23 manufacturing
172.17.4.0/26 sales
172.17.4.128/25 research


16
What best describes a discontiguous network?

combines several classfull networking address

contains more than one route to a destination

implements more than one routing protocol

separated from the rest of the hierarchical group by another network*********



17
What is another format for the IPv6 address 1080:0000:0000:0000:0000:0000:1267:01A2?

1080::1267:01A2*********

1080:0:0:0:0:1267:01A2

1080::0:1267:01A2

1080:::::1267.01A2



18


Refer to the exhibit. A company has decided to add a new workgroup. If the subnetting scheme for the network uses contiguous blocks of addresses, what subnet is assigned to WGROUP3?

172.16.3.12/29

172.16.3.16/29

172.16.3.20/29**********

172.16.3.24/29

172.16.3.32/29



19
What two advantages does CIDR provide to a network? (Choose two.)

dynamic address assignment

automatic route redistribution

reduced routing update traffic********

easier management of summarization*********

automatic summarization at classfull boundaries



20


Refer to the exhibit. What must an administrator do on R3 to ensure that update packets are sent with subnet mask information?

Add the commands:
R3(config-router)# auto-summary
R3(config-router)# no version 2

Add the commands:
R3(config-router)# version 2
R3(config-router)# no auto-summary********

Change the network statement on R3:
R3(config)# network 10.10.4.0

Add the command:
R3(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/0

CCNA4 v4.0 download(updated 19/7/2008)

CCNA Discovery 4 Module 5 (100%), CCNA 4


1 Which three design requirements are implemented at the access layer? (Choose three.)
**PoE
**VLANs
high-density routing
packet filtering
rapidly converging routing protocols
**QoS traffic classification and marking


2 When applying network security, what security measure should be implemented first?
**securing the network devices
implementing the firewalls or filters at the enterprise edge
applying security to resources accessed by internal users
applying ACLs to the interfaces of the routers in the internal network


3 What are three features of a Catalyst 2960 switch? (Choose three.)
network layer functionality
**redundant power availability
route summarization
**SNMP
**switch clustering
inter-VLAN routing


4 Which rule should be followed when implementing the security requirements of a network design?
Always use a common security plan for all business needs.
As standard practice, lower access restrictions for users if cost is too high.
**Avoid reducing security in order to add additional network capabilities.
When possible, implement an IDS to protect users from spam.


5 Using expandable, modular network devices is a key element of what network design criteria?
availability
performance
**scalability
security



6


Refer to the exhibit. What is an advantage of having two links connected between the two switches shown?
provides redundancy in case one of the switches fails
provides connectivity to Switch1 when the link to the server fails
**provides connectivity when one of the connections between the switches fails
provides power to the other switch when the other switch has lost AC power


7 When considering converged network designs, it is important to identify appropriate service demands. What is a concern when preparing a network design to fit this environment?
business data compensation for sensitivity to noise
location and placement of firewalls
**voice-level quality of service
security policy requirements


8 What is the function of the access layer in the Cisco three-layer hierarchical internetworking model?
**provides QoS classification and marking
implements a fast-converging routing protocol
uses routed interconnections between devices
aggregates traffic and performs route summarization


9 Which network design process identifies where to place access points?
**site survey
risk assessment
scalability design
network protocol analysis


10 What characteristic in a routing protocol allows it to support the network design criteria for availability?
CIDR support
**fast convergence
timed updates
VLSM support



11 What characteristic of a network supports high availability?
VPNs
high-bandwidth paths to servers
**redundancy
wireless management


12 What is a primary function of a wireless LAN controller?
**tuning each AP channel for optimal coverage
providing PoE to the wireless clients
distributing VLAN information to the wireless clients
serving as the point of connection between wireless clients and the wired LAN


13 Which two factors should be considered when designing a wireless LAN that provides seamless roaming capabilities? (Choose two.)
**use of a wireless controller to manage IP addressing
type of routing protocols
location of existing wired clients
**coverage
position of MDF


14 A company lists this equipment in their network design:
Two Catalyst 4503 Layer 3 switches
One 5500 security appliance firewall
Two Catalyst 6509 switches
Two lightweight access points
Two Catalyst 2960 switches

Which two types of devices would be appropriate to use at the access layer to provide end-user connectivity? (Choose two.)
Catalyst 4503 switches
Cisco 1841 router
Catalyst 6509 switches
**lightweight access points
**Catalyst 2960 switches


15 What limitations of the 2960 switch prevent it from providing the services needed in the Distribution layer?
It is limited to copper connections.
It does not support QoS.
It does not support voice VLAN capability.
**It does not support route summarization.

16 A state-funded college wants to implement Cisco wireless IP phones for employees to use while on campus. The college currently has only wired network device access. Which two devices must be incorporated into the network design to best accommodate roaming for wireless IP phones? (Choose two.)
voice VLAN capable switch
autonomous AP
PoE switch
**Cisco wireless LAN controller
2960 switch with 48 100-Mb ports
**lightweight access points


17 What type of WAN service is Frame Relay?
dedicated
cell switched
**packet switched
circuit switched


18 What is integrated into a Cisco IP phone to reduce the number of ports needed in the wiring closet?
hub
router
**switch
firewall appliance


19


Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true regarding how the ISP router filters traffic?
Traffic from the 64.100.0.1 address to any destination on the Internet is denied.
Traffic from any source address entering the ISP router interface s0/0/0 is permitted.
Only traffic with a source address of 64.100.0.1/30 is allowed into the ISP router interface s0/0/0.
**All traffic from the 64.100.0.0/21 network can access the Internet.
Traffic from any source address can access the 64.100.0.0/21 network.

20 Which two statements are true regarding the following extended ACL? (Choose two.)

access-list 101 deny tcp 172.16.3.0 0.0.0.255 any eq 20
access-list 101 deny tcp 172.16.3.0 0.0.0.255 any eq 21
access-list 101 permit ip any any
**FTP traffic originating from network 172.16.3.0/24 is denied.
All traffic is implicitly denied.
FTP traffic destined for the 172.16.3.0/24 network is denied.
Telnet traffic originating on network 172.16.3.0/24 is denied.
**Web traffic originating from 172.16.3.0 is permitted.




21 Which statement applies to a large network with thousands of nodes?
Each wireless phone is normally in a separate VLAN for security reasons.
Multiple firewalls exist throughout the access layer for maximum security protection.
Firewalls cannot be implemented in the multilayer switches and routers.
**Intrusion detection is more likely to be performed by a separate device rather than integrated into a switch or router.

CCNA4 v4.0 download(updated 19/7/2008) <

CCNA Discovery 4 Module 1 Scored 100%



1

Refer to the exhibit. What happens when Host 1 attempts to send data?



Frames from Host 1 are dropped, but no other action is taken.



Frames from Host 1 cause the interface to shut down, and a log message is sent.*****



Frames from Host 1 are forwarded, but a log message is sent.



Frames from Host 1 are forwarded, and no log message is sent because the switchport port-security violation command was not configured.







2

Refer to the exhibit. Which two devices are part of the access design layer? (Choose two.)



Edge2



ISP4



BR4



FC-AP *****



FC-CPE-1



FC-ASW-2 *****







3

Refer to the exhibit. Two access layer Catalyst switches are connected. Both switches have ports configured for VLANs 40 and 50 as shown. What must be configured on the two switches to allow the link between the two switches to carry data for multiple VLANs?



trunking *****



STP



ACLs



switch blocks







4

What are three ways to ensure that an unwanted user does not connect to a wireless network and view the data? (Choose three.)



disable SSID broadcasting *****



configure filters to restrict IP addresses



use authentication between clients and the wireless device *****



use NetBIOS name filtering between clients and the wireless device



configure strong encryption such as WPA *****



use a WEP compression method







5

Refer to the exhibit. The server sends an ARP request for the MAC address of its default gateway. If STP is not enabled, what is the result of this ARP request?



Router_1 contains the broadcast and replies with the MAC address of the next-hop router.



Switch_A replies with the MAC address of the Router_1 E0 interface.



Switch_A and Switch_B continuously flood the message onto the network. *****



Switch_B forwards the broadcast request and replies with the Router_1 address.







6

Which two considerations are valid when designing access layer security? (Choose two.)



In a large wireless network, the most efficient method to secure the WLAN is MAC address filtering.



DoS attacks are normally launched against end-user PCs and can be mitigated by installing personal firewalls on all company PCs.



SSH is more secure than Telnet to administer network devices. *****



Disabling unused ports on the switches helps prevent unauthorized access to the network. *****



Attacks originating inside the network are common, but placing servers inside a DMZ cannot protect against this type of attack.







7

A network designer is creating a new network. The design must offer enough redundancy to provide protection against a single link or device failure, yet must not be too complex or expensive to implement. What topology would fill these needs?



star



full mesh



partial mesh *****



extended star



hub and spoke







8

Centralizing servers in a data center server farm can provide which benefit over a distributed server environment?



It keeps client-to-server traffic local to a single subnet.



Servers located in a data center require less bandwidth.



It is easier to filter and prioritize traffic to and from the data center. *****



Server farms are not subject to denial of service attacks.







9

Refer to the exhibit. Which two situations cause the router to display the rommon1> prompt? (Choose two.)



This is a normal stage in the router boot sequence.



A password recovery procedure is in progress. *****



The Cisco IOS software could not be loaded from flash memory or a TFTP server. *****



The configuration was not saved before the last reload.



The configuration register was changed to 0x2142 before the last reload.







10

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator creates a standard access control list to prohibit traffic from the 192.168.1.0/24 network from reaching the 192.168.2.0/24 network while still permitting Internet access for all networks. On which router interface and in which direction should it be applied?



interface fa0/0/0, inbound



interface fa0/0/0, outbound



interface fa0/0/1, inbound



interface fa0/0/1, outbound *****







11

In a well-designed, high-availability network, which device significantly affects the most users if a failure occurs?



desktop PC of the user



large switch in the network core layer



large switch in the network distribution layer



small workgroup switch in the network access layer *****







12

Which three statements describe the functions of the Cisco hierarchical network design model? (Choose three.)



Route summarization is not necessary at the core and distribution layers.



The distribution layer is responsible for traffic filtering and isolating failures from the core. *****



Two goals of the core layer are 100 percent uptime and maximizing throughput. *****



The access layer provides a means of connecting end devices to the network. *****



The distribution layer distributes network traffic directly to end users.



The core layer usually employs a star topology.







13

Which Cisco IOS function can be configured at the distribution layer to filter unwanted traffic and provide traffic management?



virus protection



spyware protection



VPNs



access control lists *****







14

What address can be used to summarize networks 172.16.1.0/24, 172.16.2.0/24, 172.16.3.0/24, and 172.16.4.0/24?



172.16.0.0/21 *****



172.16.1.0/22



172.16.0.0 255.255.255.248



172.16.0.0 255.255.252.0







15

Refer to the exhibit. What effect does the ACL shown have on network traffic, assuming that it is correctly applied to the interface?



All traffic to network 172.16.0.0 is denied.



All TCP traffic is denied to and from network 172.16.0.0.



All Telnet traffic from the 172.16.0.0 network to any destination is denied. *****



All port 23 traffic to the 172.16.0.0 network is denied.



All traffic from the 172.16.0.0 network is denied to any other network.







16

Which two statements are true regarding network convergence? (Choose two.)



In a large network, using the EIGRP or OSPF routing protocols rather than RIPv2 may improve convergence time. *****



Using STP at the core layer improves convergence time by allowing the use of redundant links between devices.



Route summarization improves convergence time by minimizing the size of the routing table. *****



A full mesh topology improves convergence time by allowing load balancing.



ACLs can be configured to improve convergence time.







17

The network administrator is designing network connectivity for a home teleworker. The teleworker needs secure access to download and upload documents on the network file server. What network connection would be most cost efficient while still meeting the security and connectivity needs of this teleworker?



dedicated leased line connection with a dialup backup link



Frame Relay connection with a DSL backup link



DSL VPN connection with a dialup backup link *****



ATM connection with a DSL VPN backup link



DSL connection with no backup link







18

Which three functions are performed at the distribution layer of the hierarchical network model? (Choose three.)



aggregating bandwidth by concentrating multiple low-speed access links *****



isolating network problems to prevent them from affecting the core layer *****



allowing end users to access the local network



summarizing routes from the access layer *****



preserving bandwidth at the access layer by filtering network functions



accelerating data transfer between links in the core layer







19

Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements correctly describe the benefits of the network access layer design shown? (Choose two.)



If Host A sends a broadcast message, only hosts in VLAN10 receive the broadcast frame. *****



If Host A attempts to transmit data at the same time as another host, only hosts in VLAN10 are affected by the collision.



Segmenting all voice traffic on a separate VLAN facilitates QoS by allowing devices to mark the traffic originating from the voice VLAN with the highest priority. *****



VLANs improve network performance by facilitating the use of route summarization.



VLANs at the access layer help guarantee network availability by facilitating load balancing.







20

The ability to connect securely to a private network over a public network is provided by which WAN technology?



DSL



Frame Relay



ISDN



PSTN



VPN *****

[Options with Highlight Colour are correct Answers]

11. Which two statements characterize wireless network security? (Choose two.)

A rogue access point represents a security risk for the local network.

Wireless networks offer the same security features as wired networks.

Using encryption prevents unauthorized clients from associating with an access point.

An attacker needs physical access to at least one network device to launch an attack.

With SSID broadcast disabled, an attacker must sniff the SSID before being able to connect.

12. Which network design process identifies where to place access points?

site survey

risk assessment

scalability design

network protocol analysis

13. What wireless security feature allows a network administrator to configure an access point with wireless NIC unique identifiers so that only these NICs can connect to the wireless network?

authentication.

SSID broadcasting.

MAC address.

filtering EAP (Extensible Authentication Protocol)

Radius (Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service)

14. What will a wireless client transmit to discover the available WLAN networks?

beacon.

password.

probe request.

association request.

15. In a WLAN network, why should wireless access points be implemented with each access point using a different channel?

to keep users segregated on separate subnets

to control the amount of bandwidth that is utilized

to keep signals from interfering with each other

to keep traffic secure

16. What purpose does authentication serve in a WLAN?

converts clear text data before transmission.

indicates which channel the data should flow on.

determines that the correct host is utilizing the network.

allows the host to choose which channel to use.

17. What occurs when a rogue access point is added to a WLAN?

Authorized access points can transmit excess traffic to rogue access points to help alleviate congestion.

Unauthorized users can gain access to internal servers, thus causing a security hole.

All traffic that uses the same channel as the rogue access point will be encrypted.

All traffic that uses the same channel as the rogue access point will be required to authenticate.
Scoring Rule For: correctness of response2 points for Option 2

18. What procedure can prevent man-in-the-middle attacks?

Force all devices on a WLAN to authenticate and monitor for any unknown devices.

Enable access points to send an SSID to each device wanting to use the network.

Configure MAC filtering on all authorized access points.

Disable SSID broadcasts.
Scoring Rule For: correctness of response2 points for Option 1

19. Which function is provided by a wireless access point?

dynamically assigns an IP address to the host.

provides local DHCP services.

converts data from 802.11 to 802.3 frame encapsulation.

provides a gateway for connecting to other network.s

20. Which major problem does CSMA/CA overcome in wireless networks?

bandwidth

saturation.

privacy concerns.

media contention.

device interoperability.

21. What does a wireless access point use to allow WLAN clients to learn which networks are available in a given area?

Association response.

Beacon.

Key.

Probe request.

5. What distinguishes traditional routing from router-on-a-stick?

Traditional routing is only able to use a single switch interface. Router-on-a-stick can use multiple switch interfaces.

Traditional routing requires a routing protocol. Router-on-a-stick only needs to route directly connected networks.

Traditional routing uses one port per logical network. Router-on-a-stick uses subinterfaces to connect multiple logical networks to a single router port.

Traditional routing uses multiple paths to the router and therefore requires STP. Router-on-a-stick does not provide multiple connections and therefore eliminates the need for STP.

6. Which statement is true about ARP when inter-VLAN routing is being used on the network?

When router-on-a-stick inter-VLAN routing is in use, each subinterface has a separate MAC address to send in response to ARP requests.

When VLANs are in use, the switch responds to ARP requests with the MAC address of the port to which the PC is connected.

When router-on-a-stick inter-VLAN routing is in use, the router returns the MAC address of the physical interface in response to ARP requests.

When traditional inter-VLAN routing is in use, devices on all VLANs use the same physical router interface as their source of proxy ARP responses.

7. What two statements are true regarding the use of subinterfaces for inter-VLAN routing? (Choose two.)

subinterfaces have no contention for bandwidth.

more switch ports required than in traditional inter-VLAN routing.

fewer router ports required than in traditional inter-VLAN routing.

simpler Layer 3 troubleshooting than with traditional inter-VLAN routing less complex physical connection than in traditional inter-VLAN routing.

8. Which three elements must be used when configuring a router interface for VLAN trunking? (Choose three.)

one subinterface per VLAN.

one physical interface for each subinterface

one IP network or subnetwork for each subinterface.

one trunked link per VLAN.

a management domain for each subinterface.

a compatible trunking protocol encapsulation for each subinterface.

9. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about the operation of the subinterfaces? (Choose two.)

Incoming traffic that has a VLAN ID of 2 is processed by subinterface fa0/0.2.

Incoming traffic with VLAN ID 0 is processed by interface fa0/0.

Subinterfaces use unique MAC addresses by adding the 802.1Q VLAN ID to the hardware address.

Traffic inbound on this router is processed by different subinterfaces, depending on the VLAN from which the traffic originated. Reliability of both subinterfaces is poor because ARP is timing out.

Both subinterfaces remain up with line protocol up, even if fa0/0 line protocol is down.

10. Refer to the exhibit. Port Fa0/0 on router R1 is connected to port Fa0/1 on switch S1. After the commands shown are entered on both devices, the network administrator determines that the devices on VLAN 2 are unable to ping the devices on VLAN 1. What is the likely problem?

R1 is configured for router-on-a-stick, but S1 is not configured for trunking.

R1 does not have the VLANs entered in the VLAN database.

Spanning Tree Protocol is blocking port Fa0/0 on R1.

The subinterfaces on R1 have not been brought up with the no shutdown command yet.

11. Refer to the exhibit. PC1 has attempted to ping PC2 but has been unsuccessful. What could account for this failure?

PC1 and R1 interface F0/0.1 are on different subnets.

The encapsulation is missing on the R1 interface F0/0.

An IP address has not been assigned to the R1 physical interface.

The encapsulation command on the R1 F0/0.3 interface is incorrect.

12. Refer to the exhibit. R1 is routing between networks 192.168.10.0/28 and 192.168.30.0/28. PC1 can ping R1 interface F0/1, but cannot ping PC3. What is causing this failure?

PC1 and PC3 are not in the same VLAN.

The PC3 network address configuration is incorrect.

The S1 interface F0/11 should be assigned to VLAN30.

The F0/0 and F0/1 interfaces on R1 must be configured as trunks.
Scoring Rule For: correctness of response2 points for Option 2

13. Devices on the network are connected to a 24-port Layer 2 switch that is configured with VLANs. Switch ports 0/2 to 0/4 are assigned to VLAN 10. Ports 0/5 to 0/8 are assigned to VLAN 20, and ports 0/9 to 0/12 are assigned to VLAN 30. All other ports are assigned to the default VLAN. Which solution allows all VLANs to communicate between each other while minimizing the number of ports necessary to connect the VLANs?

Configure ports 0/13 to 0/16 with the appropriate IP addresses to perform routing between VLANs.

Add a router to the topology and configure one FastEthernet interface on the router with multiple subinterfaces for VLANs 1, 10, 20, and 30.

Obtain a router with multiple LAN interfaces and configure each interface for a separate subnet, thereby allowing communication between VLANs.

Obtain a Layer 3 switch and configure a trunk link between the switch and router, and configure the router physical interface with an IP address on the native VLAN.

14. Which two statements are true about the interface fa0/0.10 command? (Choose two.)

The command applies VLAN 10 to router interface fa0/0.

The command is used in the configuration of router-on-a-stick inter-VLAN routing.

The command configures a subinterface.

The command configures interface fa0/0 as a trunk link.

Because the IP address is applied to the physical interface, the command does not include an IP address.

15. Refer to the exhibit. What two conclusions can be drawn from the output that is shown? (Choose two.)

The no shutdown command has not been issued on the FastEthernet 0/0 interface.

Both of the directly connected routes that are shown will share the same physical interface of the router.

A routing protocol must be configured on the network in order for the inter-VLAN routing to be successful.

Inter-VLAN routing between hosts on the 172.17.10.0/24 and 172.17.30.0/24 networks is successful on this network.

Hosts in this network must be configured with the IP address that is assigned to the router physical interface as their default gateway.

16. What are the steps which must be completed in order to enable inter-VLAN routing using router-on-a-stick?

Configure the physical interfaces on the router and enable a routing protocol.

Create the VLANs on the router and define the port membership assignments on the switch.

Create the VLANs on the switch to include port membership assignment and enable a routing protocol on the router.

Create the VLANs on the switch to include port membership assignment and configure subinterfaces on the router matching the VLANs.

17. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator correctly configures RTA to perform inter-VLAN routing. The administrator connects RTA to port 0/4 on SW2, but inter-VLAN routing does not work. What could be the possible cause of the problem with the SW2 configuration?

Port 0/4 is not active.

Port 0/4 is not a member of VLAN1.

Port 0/4 is configured in access mode.

Port 0/4 is using the wrong trunking protocol.

18. What is important to consider while configuring the subinterfaces of a router when implementing inter-VLAN routing?

The physical interface must have an IP address configured.

The subinterface numbers must match the VLAN ID number.

The no shutdown command must be given on each subinterface.

The IP address of each subinterface must be the default gateway address for each VLAN subnet.

19. in which situation could individual router physical interfaces be used for InterVLAN routing, instead of a router-on-a-stick configuration?

a network with more than 100 subnetworks.

a network with a limited number of VLANs.

a network with experienced support personne.

a network using a router with one LAN interface.

20. Refer to the exhibit. Switch1 is correctly configured for the VLANs that are displayed in the graphic. The configuration that is shown was applied to RTA to allow for interVLAN connectivity between hosts attached to Switch1. After testing the network, the administrator logged the following report:
Hosts within each VLAN can communicate with each other.

Hosts in VLAN5 and VLAN33 are able to communicate with each other.

Hosts connected to Fa0/1 through Fa0/5 do not have connectivity to host in other VLANs.
Why are hosts connected to Fa0/1 through Fa0/5 unable to communicate with hosts in different VLANs?

The router interface is shut down.

The VLAN IDs do not match the subinterface numbers.

All of the subinterface addresses on the router are in the same subnet.

The router was not configured to forward traffic for VLAN2.

The physical interface, FastEthernet0/0, was not configured with an IP address.

2. Which two items are true regarding the spanning-tree portfast command? (Choose two.)
If the switch port is configured with PortFast, it waits 15 seconds before transitioning from a blocking to forwarding state.
Enabling PortFast on trunks that connect to other switches improves convergence.
If a switch port is configured with PortFast, it is an access port that immediately transitions from a blocking to forwarding state.
Portfast enables the port to bypass the listening and learning states of STP.
Portfast bypasses the learning state and moves immediately into blocking.

3. Which two statements are true about the default operation of STP in a Layer 2 switched environment that has redundant connections between switches? (Choose two.)
The root switch is the switch with the highest speed ports.
Decisions on which port to block when two ports have equal cost depend on the port priority and identity.
All trunking ports are designated and not blocked.
Root switches have all ports set as root ports.
Non-root switches each have only one root port.

4. Refer to the exhibit. Spanning-tree port priorities are listed beneath each interface. The network administrator enters the spanning-tree vlan 1 root primary command on S4. What is the effect of the command?
Port priority makes Gi0/2 on S1 a root port.
S4 is already the root bridge, so there are no port changes.
Spanning tree blocks Gi0/1 on S3 to prevent a redundant path from S1.
S2 Gi0/1 becomes a non-designated port because Gi0/2 has a lower path cost to S4.

[Options with Highlight Colour are correct Answers]

6 What causes a VTP configured switch to issue a summary advertisement?
A new host has been attached to a switch in the management domain.
A port on a switch in the management domain has changed to blocking mode.
A five-minute update timer has elapsed.
The advertisement revision number has reached n+1.

7 Which two statements describe VTP client mode operation. (Choose two.)
can add VLANs of local significance only
can only adopt VLAN management changes
can create and adopt updated VLAN management information
can only pass VLAN management information without adopting changes
can add VLANs to domain
cannot add VLANs

8 Which statement is true when VTP is configured on a switched network that incorporates VLANs?
VTP is only compatible with the 802.1Q standard.
VTP adds to the complexity of managing a switched network.
A switch configured for VTP can belong to more than one VTP domain.
VTP dynamically communicates VLAN additions, deletions and modifications to all switches in the same VTP domain.
VTP advertisements are passed over access links to other switches.

9. Refer to the exhibit. All switches in the VTP domain are new. Switch SW1 is configured as a VTP server, switches SW2 and SW4 are configured as VTP clients, and switch SW3 is configured in VTP transparent mode. Which switch or switches receive VTP updates and synchronize their VLAN configuration based on those updates?
All switches receive updates and synchronize VLAN information.
Only switch SW2 receives updates and synchronizes VLAN information.
SW3 and SW4 receive updates, but only switch SW4 synchronizes VLAN information.
Only switches SW3 and SW4 receive updates and synchronize VLAN information.

10. Refer to the exhibit. What information can be learned from the output provided?
It verifies the configured VTP password.
It verifies the VTP domain is configured to use VTP version 2.
It verifies VTP advertisements are being exchanged.
It verifies the VTP domain name is V1.

11. Which statement is true about the VTP pruning process?
VTP pruning automatically updates all switches within the VTP domain with VLAN information.
VTP pruning updates all switches within the VTP domain with information about pruning-eligible VLANs.
VTP pruning updates all switches within the VTP domain with information about pruning-ineligible VLANs.
VTP pruning prevents flooded traffic from crossing trunk links to switches that do not need to process the flood traffic.

12. Refer to the exhibit. The switches in the exhibit are connected with trunks within the same VTP management domain. Each switch is labeled with its VTP mode. A new VLAN is added to Switch3. This VLAN does not show up on the other switches. What is the reason for this?
VLANs cannot be created on transparent mode switches.
Server mode switches neither listen to nor forward VTP messages from transparent mode switches.
VLANs created on transparent mode switches are not included in VTP advertisements.
There are no ports assigned to the new VLAN on the other switches.
Transparent mode switches do not forward VTP advertisements.

13. What does a client mode switch in a VTP management domain do when it receives a summary advertisement with a revision number higher than its current revision number?
It suspends forwarding until a subset advertisement update arrives.
It issues an advertisement request for new VLAN information.
It increments the revision number and forwards it to other switches.
It deletes the VLANs not included in the summary advertisement.
It issues summary advertisements to advise other switches of status changes.

14. Which three VTP parameters must be identical on all switches to participate in the same VTP domain? (Choose three.)
revision number
domain name
pruning
mode
domain password
version number

15. Refer to the exhibit. All switches in the network participate in the same VTP domain. What happens when the new switch SW2 with a default configuration and revision number of 0 is inserted in the existing VTP domain Lab Network?
The switch operates as a VTP client.
switch operates in VTP transparent mode.
The switch operates as a VTP server and deletes the existing VLAN configuration in the domain.
The switch operates as a VTP server, but does not impact the existing VLAN configuration in the domain.

17. Which two statements are true about the implementation of VTP? (Choose two.)
Switches must be connected via trunks.
The VTP domain name is case sensitive.
Transparent mode switches cannot be configured with new VLANs.
The VTP password is mandatory and case sensitive.
Switches that use VTP must have the same switch name.

[Options with Highlight Colour are correct Answers]

2. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has just added VLAN 50 to Switch1 and Switch2 and assigned hosts on the IP addresses of the VLAN in the 10.1.50.0/24 subnet range. Host A can communicate with Host B, but not with Host C or Host D. What is the most likely cause of this problem?
There is a native VLAN mismatch.
The link between Switch1 and Switch2 is up but not trunked.
The router is not properly configured for inter-VLAN routing.
VLAN filtering is preventing VLAN 50 from entering the trunk between Switch1 and Switch2.

3 Switch port fa0/1 was manually configured as a trunk, but now it will be used to connect a host to the network. How should the network administrator reconfigure switch port fa0/1?
Remove the multiple VLANs that the port carried in global configuration mode.
Enter the switchport nonegotiate command in interface configuration mode.
Administratively shut down and re-enable the interface to return it to default.
Enter the no switchport mode trunk command in interface configuration mode.
Disable DTP.
Enter the switchport mode access command in interface configuration mode.

4. Refer to the exhibit. The two switches that are shown will not form a trunk. What is the most likely cause of this problem?
The native VLANs are improperly configured.
All the hosts are on the same VLAN and a trunk is not needed.
Both ports are set to dynamic auto.
The trunk should be configured using the switchport mode access command.

5. A network administrator is removing several VLANs from a switch. When the administrator enters the no vlan 1 command, an error is received. Why did this command generate an error?
VLANs can only be deleted by the user who created them.
VLAN 1 can not be deleted until another VLAN has been assigned its responsibilities.
The command was not entered properly, which caused a syntax error to occur.
VLAN 1 can not be deleted until all ports have been removed from it.
VLAN 1 is the management VLAN by default and can not be deleted.

6. Refer to the exhibit. Interface Fa0/1 on switch SW1 is configured in trunk mode. Which statement is true about the trunk link between the switches SW1 and SW2?
Interface Fa0/2 on switch SW2 will negotiate to become a trunk link if it supports DTP.
Interface Fa0/1 converts the neighboring link on the adjacent switch into a trunk link automatically with no consideration of the
configuration on the neighboring interface.
Interface Fa0/1 converts the neighboring link on the adjacent switch into a trunk link if the neighboring interface is configured in
nonegotiate mode.
Interface Fa0/2 on switch SW2 can only become a trunk link if statically configured in that mode.

7 Which two statements are true regarding VLANs? (Choose two.)
VLAN 1 can be deleted or renamed.
Catalyst switches can support up to 255 VLANs.
VLAN information for a VLAN numbered 4000 would be stored in flash.
Switches use CDP advertisements on VLAN 1 to detect neighboring device information.
Extended VLANs allow multiple VLAN memberships to be assigned to a single port simultaneously.

8. Refer to the exhibit. Host B is on the same VLAN as Host D, but they are unable to communicate. What is the most likely cause of this
problem?
The link between the switches is up but not trunked.
VLAN filtering is not allowing VLAN 3 to enter the trunk between the switches.
The router is not properly configured to route traffic between the VLANs.
Host D does not have a proper address for the VLAN 3 address space.

9. What are three characteristics of VLAN1 in a default switch configuration? (Choose three.)
CDP messages are only sent on VLAN1.
VLAN1 is reserved for links between switches.
All switch ports are members of VLAN1.
VLAN1 must be created before ports can be assigned to it.
Only switch port 0/1 is assigned to VLAN1.
An IP address configured on the switch will only apply to ports on VLAN1.

10. Refer to the exhibit. Which two conclusions can be drawn regarding the switch that produced the output shown? (Choose two.)
The network administrator configured VLANs 1002-1005.
The VLANs are in the active state and are in the process of negotiating configuration parameters.
A FDDI trunk has been configured on this switch.
The command switchport access vlan 20 was entered in interface configuration mode for Fast Ethernet interface 0/1.
Devices attached to ports fa0/5 through fa0/8 cannot communicate with devices attached to ports fa0/9 through fa0/12 without the

11. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has added the configuration shown to a Catalyst switch without receiving any error or
information messages from the switch. What statement is true regarding Fast Ethernet port 0/2?
Data from multiple VLANs travels on interface Fast Ethernet 0/2.
No data can travel on interface Fast Ethernet 0/2 until the network administrator assigns it an IP address in the range of VLAN2.
For Host A to be able to communicate with Host B and Host C, VLAN3 and VLAN4 must also be configured on interface Fast
Ethernet 0/2.
The network administrator has already entered the command vlan 2 in global configuration mode.
The network administrator has already named VLAN2.

12. By default, to which VLAN does a trunked link belong?
the first VLAN defined
the last VLAN defined
all VLANs
the lowest number VLAN

13. What must the network administrator do to remove Fast Ethernet port fa0/1 from VLAN 2 and assign it to VLAN 3?

Enter the no vlan 2 and the vlan 3 commands in global configuration mode.
Enter the no switchport access vlan 2 command in interface configuration mode and then configure the port for VLAN 3.
Enter the switchport access vlan 3 command in interface configuration mode.
Administratively shut down the interface to return it to the default configuration and then configure the port for VLAN 3.

14. What is the effect of the switchport mode dynamic desirable command?

The remote connected interface must be configured as dynamic desirable for the devices to negotiate a trunk.
The native VLAN must be the default VLAN for DTP to negotiate the trunk.
The connected devices dynamically determine when data for multiple VLANs must be transmitted across the link and bring the trunk up as needed.
If the remote connected device is configured with the switchport mode dynamic auto or switchport mode trunk commands, data from multiple VLANs is transmitted over a single connection.

15. Which two statements describe how devices on VLANs communicate? (Choose two.)
Devices on different VLANs communicate through VTP.
Devices on different VLANs communicate through routers.
Data for multiple VLANs is carried over an access link that connects two switches.
Devices on the same VLAN communicate through a router.
Devices on the same VLAN communicate through Layer 2 switches.

16. Refer to the exhibit. How far is a broadcast frame that is sent by host A propagated in the LAN domain?
Only hosts in VLAN10 receive the broadcast frame.
All hosts that are connected to SW1 receive the broadcast frame.
All hosts that are connected to SW2 and SW3 receive the broadcast frame.
All hosts in VLAN 20 and VLAN 30 receive the broadcast frame.
Hosts that are connected to all switches receive the broadcast frame.

17 Which two statements describe the benefits of VLANs? (Choose two.)
VLANs improve network performance by regulating flow control and window size.
VLANs enable switches to route packets to remote networks via VLAN ID filtering.
VLANs reduce network cost by reducing the number of physical ports required on switches.
VLANs improve network security by isolating users that have access to sensitive data and applications.
VLANs divide a network into smaller logical networks, resulting in lower susceptibility to broadcast storms.

18 What port assignment mode should be used on the switch to provide connectivity for traffic coming from voice and data VLANs?
static VLAN port membership, as long as all VLANs are enabled on the port
static VLAN port membership, as long as voice and data VLANs are enabled on the port
voice VLAN port membership, which automatically provides connectivity for both VLANs
dynamic VLAN port membership, which dynamically switches the traffic coming from voice and data VLANs

19. Refer to the exhibit. Host A sends a frame to host B. On which links along the path between hosts A and B will a VLAN ID tag be included
with the frame?
C, E
A, C, E
C, E, F
A, C, D, E
A, B, C, D, E
A, B, C, D, E, F, G

20. What happens to the member ports of a VLAN when the VLAN is deleted?
They become inactive.
They default back to the management VLAN.
They automatically become a part of VLAN1.
They must be assigned to another VLAN before the original VLAN can be deleted.
They remain a part of that VLAN until the switch is rebooted. They then become members of the management VLAN.

21. The network administrator wants to separate hosts in Building A into two VLANs numbered 20 and 30. Which two statements are true concerning VLAN configuration? (Choose two.)
The VLANs may be named.
VLAN information is saved in the startup configuration.
Non-default VLANs created manually must use the extended range VLAN numbers.
The network administrator may create the VLANs in either global configuration mode or VLAN database mode.
Both VLANs may be named BUILDING_A to distinguish them from other VLANs in different geographical locations.

22. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true concerning interface Fa0/5?
The default native VLAN is being used.
The trunking mode is set to auto.
Trunking can occur with non-Cisco switches.
VLAN information about the interface encapsulates the Ethernet frames.

23. Refer to the exhibit. Why is Administrative Trunking Encapsulation set to negotiate?
IEEE 802.1q is the sole encapsulation type available on the switch.
This port on the switch does not support Cisco proprietary trunking.
It supports the ability of the switch to use either IEEE 802.1q or ISL encapsulation.
It allows the switch to dynamically determine whether this port is in trunking mode or access mode.

24. Refer to the exhibit. What is the result of the configuration provided?
The traffic between the hosts in the same VLAN is switched properly.
The trunk link is established, but only the traffic on the native VLAN crosses the link.
The trunk link is established, but only the traffic on the regular VLANs crosses the link.
The trunk link is down, and no traffic is able to cross the link.

25 What information does frame tagging add to each frame to allow delivery of frames across a switched trunk?
the destination MAC address
the switch MAC address
the VLAN ID
the BID